Luke 16:16-17
[16] "The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John. Since that
time, the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached, and
everyone is forcing his way into it. [17] It is easier for heaven and
earth to disappear than for the least stroke of a pen to drop out of the
Law.
- Jesus sees the "good news of the Kingdom" as a new era, in contrast with the former period of the Law and the Prophets (16:16a), and
- Observes that the kingdom require "forcible entry" (16:16b),
- He affirms the permanence of the Law (16:17), but
Law and Prophets vs. Good News of the Kingdom (16:16a)
"The Law and the Prophets were [proclaimed] until John. Since that time, the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it." (16:16)
The phrase "the Law and the Prophets" can refer to the actual books of the Old Testament, or, as here, to the teaching of these books. Jesus encouraged his disciples to follow the Golden Rule and said, "for this sums up the Law and the Prophets" (Matthew 7:12). When he gave the two great commandments, he said, "All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments" (Matthew 22:40) (See also Acts 13:15; 24:14; 28:23.)
John the Baptist is the watershed between the two eras: (1) the law and the prophets age and (2) the kingdom age. He straddles these them. He is proclaiming the new era: "The time has come. The kingdom of God is near. Repent and believe the good news!" (Mark 1:15). But in some way John is the last of the Old Testament prophets, for Jesus says, "Among those born of women there is no one greater than John; yet the one who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he" (Luke 7:28). As Moses sees the Promised Land but never enters it himself, so John proclaims the Kingdom but is not quite a part of it as Jesus begins to reveal it.
A key word for Luke is "good news" or "gospel": the noun Greek euangelion, " 'good news' as a proclamation,' and the verb euangelizo, " 'bring good news, announce good news,' usually specifically 'to proclaim the divine message of salvation, proclaim, preach.' "[1] The prophets -- Isaiah, Jeremiah, Hosea, Amos, Joel, Malachi, and the rest -- proclaimed the Law and called Jews to repent of their sins and turn back to obedience to God's Law. And that was right and good.
But now Messiah has come and ushers in the new age only glimpsed by the prophets. For centuries it is just a vision; now it is here in the person of Jesus:
"The time is coming," declares the Lord, "when I will make a new covenant
with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah.
It will not be like the covenant I made with their forefathers
when I took them by the hand to lead them out of Egypt,
because they broke my covenant, though I was a husband to them," declares the Lord.
"This is the covenant I will make with the house of Israel after that time," declares the Lord.
"I will put my law in their minds and write it on their hearts.
I will be their God, and they will be my people.
No longer will a man teach his neighbor, or a man his brother, saying, 'Know the Lord,'
because they will all know me, from the least of them to the greatest," declares the Lord.
"For I will forgive their wickedness and will remember their sins no more."
(Jeremiah 31:31-34)
What great news! What good news!
Forcing Your Way into the Kingdom (16:16b)
"Since that time, the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it." (16:16b)
The last phrase of 16:16 is one of the hardest in the New Testament to interpret, since we are not privy to the full context surrounding this saying. It appears in both Matthew and Luke in slightly different settings. In Matthew, Jesus is commenting on John the Baptist's role after the imprisoned John has sent some followers to Jesus to confirm that he is indeed the Messiah. Jesus praises John, and proclaims him greater than any prophet before him. Then he says:
"From the days of John the Baptist until now, the kingdom of heaven has been forcefully advancing (Greek biazo, middle or passive), and forceful men (biastes) lay hold (harpazo) of it." (Matthew 11:12)
Luke's record of the saying is similar:
"Since that time, the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached, and everyone is forcing his way (Greek biazo, middle or passive) into it." (16:16b)
These are the only two verses in the New Testament where the Greek verb biazo is used, which makes it difficult to have certainty about how the word is being used. "In Greek literature biazo is most often used in the unfavorable sense of attack or forcible restraint." The most recent Greek-English Lexicon gives four possible definitions of biazo in these two verses: (1) "to inflict violence on, 'dominate, constrain,' (2) to gain an objective by force, 'use force,' (3) to go after something with enthusiasm, 'seek fervently, try hard,' or (4) 'constrain (warmly).' "[2] The noun used in Matthew, Greek biastes, is used in other literature in a negative or pejorative sense, "violent, impetuous person."[3]
One of the most popular interpretations sees biazo as passive and takes the saying as meaning that the Kingdom suffers violence as its servants (e.g., John the Baptist and Jesus) are maltreated by the enemies of the Kingdom. But instead of trying to list each of the possible interpretations, let me outline what I think it means and why.
I am taking biazo as the middle voice instead of the passive voice (the forms here are exactly the same) with the second definition above, "to gain an objective by force." In other words, Jesus is saying that people must actively, aggressively, forcibly to seek entrance into the Kingdom.[5] You don't enter the Kingdom of God by osmosis or family tradition. A number of Jesus' teachings about the Kingdom indicate the radical nature of taking hold of the Kingdom. Let us look at a few:
- Being born again (John 3:3, 7). If you've ever given birth or been present at a birth, then you know first hand that birth is a violent, radical event, "natural" though it may be.[4]
- Cutting off your hand, plucking out your eye that causes you to sin (Mark 9:47).
- Hating one's family (Luke 14:26).
- Bringing not peace, but a sword (Matthew 10:34).
- Giving up everything for the treasure hidden in the field and for the pearl of great price (Matthew 13:44-46). Radical action was required of the rich young ruler (Mark 10:21).
- Counting the cost of building a tower or waging war (Luke 14:28-33)
Too often we want the blessings of the Kingdom, but are not willing to do whatever it takes to follow Jesus. We are "rice Christians," "fair-weather Christians" who aren't following Jesus the Master but adopting a religion. When you take Jesus' teachings seriously and look at them fairly, it's pretty obvious that he is asking for everything that we have -- our heart, our allegiance, our obedience, our willingness to risk all to follow. Jesus mention any comfortable middle ground, though the timid part of us earnestly would like to find it.
In this verse Jesus says:
- "Everyone," Greek pas, that is, everyone who becomes part of the Kingdom...
- "is forcing his way," pushing through the door, seeking to enter while it still possible, making every effort...
- "into it," Greek eis, that is, into the Kingdom.
One of my favorite verses, and perhaps yours, too, is: "Seek first his kingdom and his righteousness, and all these things will be given to you as well" (Matthew 6:33). The verb "seek" is Greek zeteo, "seek, look for, search for ... try to obtain, desire to possess."[6]
The Permanence of the Law (16:17)
"It is easier for heaven and earth to disappear than for the least stroke of a pen to drop out of the Law." (16:17)
The Pharisees followed strictly their rather rigid interpretation of
the Law, later
written down in the Mishnah. They criticized Jesus as if he didn't take
the Law seriously because he didn't adopt their particular
interpretation. But Jesus affirms that the Law, rightly interpreted,
remains and will endure. The Sermon on the Mount is largely a
reinterpretation of the spirit of the Law, which begins with Matthew's
quoting of the saying in this verse (Matthew 5:17-20).
We must reject the Pharisees' picky, legalistic approach to the Law, but
must
understand and affirm its purpose and spirit. At the same time we
realize that
much of the Law is obsolete since Messiah has come and is doing a new
thing, proclaiming
the good news of the Kingdom.
Exegetical Commentary on 1 John 2:18-27
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Many interpreters see a new section beginning at 2:18, although there are differences of opinion as to whether this is merely a new section (which continues on the theme of the world “passing away” in 2:17 by announcing its immediate end in 2:18) or whether this marks a new major part of the letter.251 This section contains a theme statement, just as 1:5 contained a theme statement for all of 1:5-3:10 (the first half of the letter). The theme statement, as in 1:5, is found in the first verse of the section, 2:18. It consists of the first clause of that verse, “Children, it is the last hour….”
The author initially addresses the readers as “children” (paidiva, paidia), which is paralleled in 2:12 (tekniva, teknia[“little children”]) and 2:28 (tekniva, teknia [“little children”]), suggesting that 2:18-27 should be viewed as a discrete unit. There is disagreement among scholars over where the section should end, but this is because 2:27-28 are “hinge verses” and it is difficult to be sure whether they go with the preceding or following material. Making 2:28 the start of another section, however, allows the address with which it begins to stand in parallel to 2:12 and 2:18, and this seems the most logical way to divide the material.
As far as the further division of material in the section is concerned, there are three points at which the author directly addresses his readers with the use of the emphatic pronoun uJmei' (Jumeis, “you” [plural]): 2:20, 2:24, and 2:27. Following this division there are four subsections within 2:18-27.252 In the first of these (2:18-19) the author mentions the coming of Antichrist and connects it with the departure of the opponents. In the second (2:20-23) he contrasts his readers – who have received an “anointing” of the Spirit – with the Liar, the Antichrist, and the opponents. In the third section (2:24-26), he exhorts the readers to hold fast to the apostolic teaching they have heard “from the beginning” and to resist the opponents who are trying to deceive them. In the fourth (2:27) the author concludes the section 2:18-27 with a final appeal to the readers to continue in the apostolic teaching they have heard from the beginning and not to be persuaded by the opponents. Thus in this section there is a lot of stress on the concept of “residing” (“remaining”), with the key verb mevnw (menw) used no less than seven times (2:19, 24 [3 times], 27 [twice], 28). This is also the section which spells out explicitly the departure of the opponents (2:18-19), an event which is central to much that is discussed in the letter.
2:18 Children, it is the last hour, and just as you heard that Antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have appeared. We know from this that it is the last hour.
Summary
The arrival of the last hour is signaled by the appearance of the secessionist opponents whom the author describes as many antichrists. To understand the author’s use of the term Antichrist we must note that this is more than just someone who opposes Christ, but one who seeks to replace Christ, that is, a counterfeit Christ. This is precisely the idea in Mark 13:22 where Jesus warns his followers about “false Christs and false prophets” who will arise before his return, working signs and wonders in order to deceive, if possible, the elect. It is in this category that the author of 1 John sees the opponents with their innovative but false christology. This is clear in 2 John 7 where the author explicitly labels the opponents as “the deceiver and the antichrist” and in 1 John 2:26where the author says, “these things I have written to you about those who are trying to deceive you.”
Exegetical Details
The meaning of the reference to “the last hour” (ejscavth w{ra, escath Jwra) in 2:18. R. Brown rejected the explanation of this phrase which holds that the entirety of the Christian era may be referred to as “the last days.”253 Instead, Brown stated:
…the epistolary author would scarcely need to make an urgent announcement of such a general truth. Since he has just said that the world is passing away, since the presence of the Antichrists is cited as a sign of the end, and since the coming of Christ is mentioned in 2:28, there can be little doubt that the author thought the end was coming soon. In his time he was not alone in that view…but like every other Christian who stated it then or since, he was wrong.254
However, S. Smalley argued for more flexibility in the interpretation of Johannine eschatology.255 He acknowledged that some New Testament writers speak of an extended period of time from Jesus’ resurrection to his final parousia as “the last days” (Acts 2:17, cf. Heb 1:2). The final conclusion of these ‘last days’, the final act of history, is the “day” of the Lord, which is alluded to even within John (5:24-28, 6:39-40, 11:24 according to Smalley). The parousia is still future (John 14:3) according to Smalley’s interpretation of the Fourth Gospel.256Other references within the Gospel of John emphasize the believer’s experience of eternal life in the present (John 5:24, 6:47, 10:10). Therefore within the Gospel of John there is a tension between what has already been realized and what is still to come, between the ‘now’ and the ‘not yet.’257
If we assume that a similar outlook exists in 1 John,258 then the statement in 2:18 that the “last hour” has arrived is a proclamation that the final stage of history has been reached in the interval between the first and second advent of Christ. It is clear from the usage of w{ra (Jwra, literally, “hour”; translated as “time” in the NET Bible) in the Gospel of John that it can refer to a period of time rather than a moment of time, because it is frequently used by Jesus to refer to the entire period from just prior to his crucifixion until his return to the Father (John 2:4, 7:30, 8:20, 12:23, 12:27, 13:1, 17:1).259 Such flexibility is probably present here in 1 John as well: the author sees in the departure of the adversaries and in the promulgation of their false christology the foreshadowing of the ultimate end of history marked by the coming of the Antichrist. The end-time has already begun, and will continue until Christ returns. In this case the author was not mistaken about the arrival of “the end,” as Brown asserted.260
The referents of ajntivcristo (anticristos, “Antichrist”) in 2:18 and the ajntivcristoi (anticristoi, “antichrists”)mentioned later in the same verse. The Letters of John contain the only New Testament usage of this term, 3 times in 1 John (2:18 [2x], 2:22, and 4:3) and once in 2 John 7.261 But although the word itself is unique to 1 and 2 John, the concept behind it and the figure to whom it refers are not. Paul described this individual in 2 Thess 2:3as “the man of lawlessness, the son of destruction,” and Jesus himself referred to “the abomination of desolation” in Mark 13:14 (Matt 24:15). This individual is also referred to as “the Beast” in Rev. 13:1 ff. Smalley thinks that the lack of the Greek article with the term here in 1 John 2:18 indicates that it had by this time not only become personalized but had passed into current use as a proper name.262 Against this, however, is the fact that the two later uses in 1 John (2:22; 4:3) and the use in 2 John 7 are accompanied by the article.263
The formation of the Greek term itself causes some difficulty. The basic meaning of the Greek preposition ajntiv(anti) which is prefixed to the word cristo (cristos) may be either “against” or “in place of.” Thus this individual can either be one who opposes Christ (in the sense of “against”) or one who seeks to replace Christ, that is, a counterfeit Christ (in the sense “in place of”).264 The latter meaning is precisely the idea in Mark 13:22 (parallelMatt 24:24) where (following the reference to the “abomination of desolation” in 13:14) Jesus goes on to warn his followers that “false Christs and false prophets” (yeudovcristoi kaiV yeudoprofh'tai, yeudocristoi kai yeudoprofhtai) will arise before he returns, and they will work signs and wonders in order to deceive, if possible, even the elect. It is probably in this category that the author of the Johannine letters sees the opponents with their false christology. While it is possible that the author merely has in mind the secessionist opponents as “opposing” Christ (the first basic meaning for the preposition ajntiv (anti), the introduction of themes relating to “deceit” and “deceiving” suggest strongly that the second meaning of ajntiv (anti) is in view here. This is clear in 2 John 7 where the author explicitly labels these individuals as “the deceiver and the Antichrist” (oJ plavno kaiV oJ ajntivcristo, Jo planos kai Jo anticristos) and in 1 John 2:26 where the author says, “these things I have written to you concerning the ones who are attempting to deceive you” (periV planwvntwn uJma', peri planwntwn Jumas). The author’s reasoning is not difficult to follow: the opponents, who are trying to deceive the believers of the community to which the author is writing, are deceivers, and deceit is linked to the coming of the Antichrist, so the opponents themselves may be labeled “deceivers” and “antichrists” since they foreshadow the Antichrist who is to come (and also follow the same modus operandi of deception and deceit).
Some interpreters have argued that since the author identifies the Antichrist with the present “antichrists” (the secessionist opponents), he no longer expects the appearance of a future Antichrist at the end of the age.265Dodd maintained that for John the antichrist had become an idea (even if embodied in the opponents) rather than a specific human or supernatural individual.266 The author of 1 John does indeed refer to the “spirit of the Antichrist” in 4:3 as the controlling force behind the secessionist opponents, and it is true that this could be understood in an abstract or impersonal sense, but as Smalley observes this could equally well imply that John saw the current situation with the opponents as foreshadowing the future coming of the Antichrist himself, while nevertheless sharing in the general character of that future event.267 This seems a more plausible explanation in that it fits with the “already/not yet” emphasis which we see as consistent with the remainder of the New Testament.
2:19 They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us, because if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us. But they went out from us to demonstrate that all of them do not belong to us.
Summary
Here the author describes for the first time in the letter the departure of the opponents. They went out from the congregation or Christian community he is now writing to. Their departure shows that all of them never really belonged in the first place.
Exegetical Details
The second occurrence of the phrase “they went out from us” in this verse is not found in the Greek text but has been supplied in the translation in order to clarify the understood repetition of the phrase ejx hJmw'n ejxh'lqan (ex Jhmwn exhlqan, “they went out from us”) at the beginning of 2:19. For further explanation of the ellipsis, see below on the syntactical function of the i{na (Jina) in this verse.
The significance of the statement ejx hJmw'n ejxh'lqan (ex Jhmwn exhlqan, “they went out from us”) in 2:19 in relation to the situation within the Christian community the author of 1 John is addressing. How one understands the significance of this statement is very important in understanding the background and setting of the dispute with the opponents reflected in 1 and 2 John. It seems clear from the statement that there was once a time (before the present dispute arose) when the opponents considered themselves members of the Christian community to which 1 John is being written (and of which the author considers himself a part).268 Now the opponents have withdrawn from the community in a dispute over christological doctrine, a dispute which has every indication of being a bitter split. As Schnackenburg observed, these opponents were secessionists – they left of their own free will; there is no indication in the text that the author’s community took the initiative in expelling them.269 Houlden noted that this division appears to be a new development within the New Testament.270Although there are plenty of examples of doctrinal disagreements within Paul’s congregations (e.g., 1 Cor 15:12) there does not seem to be much indication of complete separation from fellowship on the part of a group (1 Cor 5:1-5 appears to deal with a specific individual case rather than a group).
In what is probably more than coincidence, the same verb used to describe the departure of the opponents here (ejxh'lqan, exhlqan) was used in John 13:30 of the departure of Judas Iscariot from the upper room. The implication is clear – just as Judas betrayed Jesus, so the secessionists have betrayed their fellow members of the community (and indeed, the author himself) and have gone out into the darkness (as Judas went out into the night).
The phrase oujk h\san ejx hJmw'n (ouk hsan ex Jhmwn, literally “they were not of us”; translated by the NET Bible as “they did not really belong to us”) in 2:19a in relation to the spiritual condition of the opponents prior to their withdrawal.271 The author goes on to make it clear that the opponents, although previously associated with the Christian community he is addressing, never truly belonged to it. They professed to be genuine believers and members of the community, but they really were not, and their act of secession has demonstrated this conclusively (note the Jina-clause that follows in 2:19 which makes this clear).272 Although many interpreters have viewed the opponents as genuine Christians who by their apostasy from the author’s community forfeited their salvation, the statement by the author here seems rather to suggest that the opponents, in the author’s opinion at least, were never really genuine Christians to begin with.273
They would have remained with us (2:19). Here the characteristically Johannine verb mevnw (menw) is used to express the close ongoing personal relationship between genuine members of the Christian community. See the survey of this term’s usage in the Johannine literature at its first occurrence in the letters in 1 John 2:6.
The syntactical relationship of the i{na (Jina) in 2:19. The combination of ajllav (alla) + i{na (Jina) is an expression found in the Fourth Gospel at 1:8, 1:31, 9:3, 14:31, and 15:25. Outside the Johannine literature of the New Testament it occurs only in Mark 14:49.274 As Blass-Debrunner’s standard reference grammar points out, it is a case of ellipsis where “this happened” (or a similar verb) must be supplied for the i{na to modify, with the resultant meaning “…[on the contrary] but [this happened] in order that….”275 In context “this happened” refers to the departure of the opponents: “They went out from us, but they were not of us, for if they had been of us, they would have remained with us; but [this happened, i.e., they went out from us] in order that it might be shown that all of them are not of us.” The translation in the NET Bible reflects this understanding: “But they went out from us to demonstrate that all of them do not belong to us.”276
The force of the o{ti (Joti, “that”) in 2:19. The o{ti (Joti) in 2:19 may be described as either epexegetical (i.e., explanatory) or content. Regardless of which descriptive term is preferred, in either case the clause introduced byo{ti (Joti) gives in effect the content of what is manifested or shown by the opponents’ act of withdrawal: it was shown “that all of them are not of us,” i.e., that they did not belong to the believing community of which the readers of the present letter are still a part. This echoes the situation described in John 3:21: “But the person who does the truth comes to the light, in order that his deeds might be shown that (i{na fanerwqh'/ aujtou' taV e[rga o{ti…, Jina fanerwqh autou ta erga Joti) they are done in God.” In withdrawing from the believing community, the opponents have revealed their true allegience: they showed by their withdrawal from the light that they did not belong there, nor had they ever belonged there. As mentioned previously, a number of interpreters have understood the departure of the opponents in terms of genuine believers who have committed apostasy, but it seems more likely in light of the author’s statement “all of them are not of us” (i.e., “all of them do not belong to us”) that the author views the secessionist opponents as never having really belonged to the Christian community in the first place. This is what their withdrawal from fellowship and departure prove.
The syntactical relationship of the negative particle oujk (ouk, “not”) in 2:19b. In the Joti-clause at the end of 2:19 the negative particle oujk (ouk) may modify either pavnte (pantes, “all”) or the verb eijsivn (eisin, “are”). If pavnte(pantes, “all”) is negated, it would mean “not all belong to us,” that is, “not all who claim to be genuine members of our community really are.” This is reflected in the NEB translation: “not all in our company truly belong to it.” One of the implications of such a rendering is that not all the opponents had left the author’s community at the time of writing 1 John; the author’s community is still “mixed,” made up of both his genuine followers plus some of the opponents. However, such a grammatical understanding involves an unexpected shift of subject from v. 18 and the earlier part of v. 19, where “they” clearly refers to the secessionists themselves, and here, where “all” would have to refer to “members of the community.” The word order also strongly argues against this rendering. It is important to note that the negative particle oujk (ouk) precedes the verb eijsivn (eisin), not pavnte (pantes). Taking the negative particle with the verb, as its location in the text suggests, results in the meaning “all are not,” which is the equivalent of “none is,” where “all” refers collectively to the secessionist opponents whom the author has been discussing. This same type of negation occurs fairly frequently elsewhere in the letter: 1 John 2:21, “every lie is not from the truth” = “no lie is from the truth;” 2:23, “everyone who denies the Son does not have the Father” = “no one who denies the Son has the Father;” 3:15, “every murderer does not have eternal life abiding in him” = “no murderer has eternal life abiding in him;” and 5:18, “everyone who is fathered by God does not commit sin” = “no one who is fathered by God commits sin.” In a letter as short as 1 John these are probably enough occurrences to warrant labeling the construction as characteristic of Johannine style.277 This understanding is reflected in the NET Bible translation “all of them do not belong to us.”278
Thus the point here is that the withdrawal of the opponents took place in order to show that none of them genuinely belonged to the community they withdrew from, the community to which the author is writing. The implication is that the opponents’ departure was part of God’s sovereign purpose, and the author probably intends this as reassurance to his readers in the face of the emotional and psychological turmoil that may have followed the schism. None of those who left were truly believers to begin with, and their secession from the community of true believers proved it (just as, for the author, their continuing to walk in darkness proved the same thing in 1:6).
2:20 Nevertheless you have an anointing from the Holy One, and you all know.
Summary
The anointing from the Holy One refers to the Holy Spirit who indwells believers. The Holy One refers to Jesus Christ himself. In contrast to the opponents, all of whom do not belong, John tells his readers you all know. What they know, in contrast to the opponents, is the truth about who Jesus is, as the following verse makes clear.
Exegetical Details
When compared with the secessionist opponents (discussed in the previous verse) the readers/recipients of the letter, who are genuine believers and have remained loyal to the Christian community and the apostolic teaching, can be assured that they possess a cri'sma (crisma, “anointing”) from the “Holy One” which enables them to know the real truth. In vv. 20-23 the author discusses the indicators of a genuine believer. Once again the author’s antithetical (or polarized) viewpoint reflects a sharp distinction not only between the positions of the secessionist opponents on the one hand and his followers who have held to the apostolic testimony on the other, but also between the basic concepts of falsehood and truth that characterize their respective positions (vv. 21-22; also 4:1-6).
The meaning of cri'sma in 2:20. The meaning of this word is disputed: the noun form may mean either (1) “the means of anointing” (i.e., the oil or ointment itself that is placed on someone) or (2) “the results of receiving an anointing.”279 The Old Testament background of the term includes the general use of “anointing oil” for purposes of consecration (Exod 29:7; 30:25; 35:15), but there was also a figurative significance to anointing, as 1 Sam 16:13 shows: Samuel anointed David, and the Spirit of Yahweh came upon him with power. Likewise, in Isa 61:1the Servant of Yahweh was “anointed” by the Spirit to proclaim the good news. This figurative usage for anointing with/by the Spirit is picked up in the New Testament in the use of the related verb crivw (criw), e.g., Acts 10:38, where Peter says that God “anointed” Jesus with the Holy Spirit. There are three other references to the anointing of Jesus in the New Testament (Acts 4:27, Luke 4:18, Heb 1:9), and the last two occur in Old Testament quotations.280 On the basis of these analogies, it seems highly probable that the related noun form cri'sma(crisma), which appears in the New Testament only three times (once here and twice in 1 John 2:27), refers not to the means of anointing (that is, the substance itself, the anointing oil) but to the results of receiving the anointing.281
However, we must still decide whether the referent of cri'sma (crisma, “anointing”) here is (1) the Holy Spirit or (2) the word of God. In favor of the word of God is the structure of the passage: we have already mentioned that there are three statements in which the readers are addressed as “you” (2:20, 2:24, 2:27). In the first and last of these the readers are said to receive an “anointing” from the Holy One (or from “him”). The middle statement, however, speaks of “what you have heard from the beginning” and this seems clearly a reference to the apostolic testimony about the significance of the earthly life and ministry of Jesus Christ.282 An additional point is that if the cri'sma(crisma) here refers to the word of God which the readers have received, the author is appealing to an objectivestandard of truth against which the truth or falsity of the opponents’ claims may be tested. Objective standards like one’s love for fellow Christians play a significant role elsewhere in 1 John.
In spite of this, Johannine usage seems to point to the Holy Spirit as the referent here. In 1 John 2:27 believers are told that they “received” the cri'sma (crisma), while in John 14:17 Jesus contrasts his disciples with the “world” who cannot “receive” the Paraclete. In 1 John 2:27 the cri'sma (crisma) is said to “remain in” believers, while in John 14:17 Jesus tells the disciples that the Paraclete “remains with you and will be in you.” 1 John 2:27 says that thecri'sma (crisma) “teaches you [believers] about all things,” while in John 14:26 Jesus says, “the Paraclete will teach you everything.” Finally, in 1 John 2:20 knowledge (“and you know all things”) is the result of having the cri'sma(crisma), while in John 14:17 knowledge is given by the Paraclete. These conceptual links seem to point to the Holy Spirit as the cri'sma (crisma) mentioned in 1 John 2:20 and 2:27.
It may be, in fact, that the author has both the Holy Spirit and the word of God in mind when he refers to the cri'sma(crisma) received by believers in 1 John 2:20 and 2:27. S. Smalley suggested: “The faithful…are those who have (inwardly) received the gospel of truth, and made it their own through the activity of the Spirit (cf. 1 Thess 1:5-6); thereby they possess the antidote to heresy….”283
If so, however, it still appears (based on the parallels discussed above between the Paraclete in the Gospel of John and the cri'sma [crisma] mentioned here) that the primary referent in 1 John 2:20 is the Holy Spirit, who is given by Jesus to believers. It is likely that the secessionist opponents had appealed to the teaching about the Spirit/Paraclete found in the Fourth Gospel to support their own claims to have the correct understanding of who Jesus was, and what the significance of his earthly life and ministry was. If the author of 1 John indeed has boththe word of God and the Holy Spirit in mind here when he speaks of the “anointing,” he would be asserting that the word of God (as an external objective reality) cannot be detached from the (interior and subjective) witness of the Spirit/Paraclete present in the believer.
In what sense may the readers be said to ‘have’ (e[cete, ecete) this cri'sma (crisma) in 2:20? Since we have already decided in the discussion above that the cri'sma (crisma) in 1 John 2:20 and 2:27 refers primarily to the Holy Spirit (although it may refer to both the Holy Spirit and the word of God), the readers may be said to “have” it in a figurative sense which refers to the “possession” of the Spirit through the Spirit’s indwelling in the lives of believers. While some have understood the “anointing” (cri'sma, crisma) to be a literal practice of anointing people in the Johannine community, perhaps carried out at the baptism of converts, there is little external evidence for such a practice, and nothing in the text of the Johannine letters demands a reference to a literal practice.284 It is even possible that the terminology John employs here is that of the opponents, who may have spoken of the indwelling Spirit as an “anointing” from God. In this case, John uses terminology both his opponents and his readers would be familiar with, but shapes it to suit his own (orthodox) theology, as the comparisons with the role and functions of the Spirit/Paraclete in the Fourth Gospel illustrate.
The referent of tou' aJgivou (tou Jagiou, “the Holy One”) in 2:20. Once again the meaning of the phrase is ambiguous. There are three possibilities for the referent: (1) the Holy Spirit; (2) God the Father; or (3) Jesus Christ.
The first possibility can be eliminated because (a) this phrase itself is never a title for the Holy Spirit in the New Testament and (b) we have already concluded in the two preceding paragraphs that the anointing itself referred primarily to the Holy Spirit indwelling the believer. It is highly unlikely the author would be saying that the Holy Spirit is the source of the “anointing” which consists of himself indwelling the believer – such reasoning is a bit too circuitous even for the author of 1 John!
A reference to God has been suggested here because: (a) In the Old Testament there are well-known references to God as “the Holy One of Israel” (Isa 1:4, Ps 71:22); there is at least one clear reference in the LXX using this phrase (Hab 3:3). (b) In 1 John 3:24 and 4:13 it is God who gives the Holy Spirit to believers. (c) In the two passages from the Gospel of John which are closest to 1 John 2:20, 27 (John 14:16-17, 26) it is God the Father who sends the Holy Spirit.
A reference to Jesus Christ is most probable here, however, for the following reasons: (a) Jesus is called “the Holy One of God” in Mark 1:24, Luke 4:34, and John 6:69, and “the Holy One” (exactly as here) in Acts 3:14 and Rev. 3:7. (b) John 15:26 and 16:7 portray Jesus sending the Holy Spirit, and Acts 2:33 refers to the exalted Jesus pouring out the Spirit. (c) Finally, there is conclusive contextual evidence in 1 John 2:27, which speaks of “the anointing which you received from him” (ajp= aujtou', ap’ autou) and “his anointing” (toV aujtou' cri'sma, to autou crisma). The pronouns in both these phrases (aujtou', autou) almost certainly refer to Jesus Christ, since they both relate back to 2:25 which describes the promise to believers of eternal life given by Jesus Christ.
Thus in summary we conclude that the primary reference here is to Jesus “anointing” believers with the Holy Spirit. Since the verb translated “received” in 2:27 (ejlavbete, elabete) is past tense (aorist), this most likely refers to the gift of the Spirit to indwell believers at their conversion.
The meaning and referent of the final clause in 2:20, kaiV oi[date pavnte (kai oidate pantes, “and you all know”).There is a textual problem in the phrase: should kaiV oi[date pavnte (“you all know”) or kaiV oi[date pavnta (“you know all things”) be read here? The nominative plural pavnte (pantes, “you all know”) is read by Í B P Y 398 1838 1852 copsa Jerome Hesychius. On the other hand A C K 049 33 614 1739 Byz latt and several other versional witnesses (mostly secondary) have the accusative pavnta (panta, “you know all things”). The manuscript evidence favors the nominative reading, but it is not overwhelming. At the same time, the internal evidence supports the nominative, suggesting that it arose as a result of scribal confusion with the accusative used in John 14:26 and 16:30. The phrase in 2:27 could also be read as neuter and might suggest a neuter accusative here. Certainlypavnte (pantes) is favored on internal grounds as the somewhat more difficult reading to explain, but it fits the context well. In this context of reassurance, where the author has just reminded his readers that they possess an anointing with the Holy Spirit from Jesus himself (see previous discussion), it would seem logical for the author to tell the readers that all of them have knowledge. This would create an implicit contrast with all of the secessionist opponents, who presumably do not.
2:21 I have not written to you that you do not know the truth, but that you do know it, and that no lie is of the truth.
Summary
These are further words of authoritative reassurance from the author to his readers. Because of the false teaching of the secessionist opponents, some of the readers may have come to doubt that they really knew the truthconcerning the apostolic testimony about who Jesus is. John writes to reassure them that they do. The phrase no lie is of the truth refers to the teaching of the opponents (see the next two verses).
Exegetical Details
Previously the author had contrasted two groups of people: those who remained true to the apostolic testimony about who Jesus is, and the secessionist opponents who had withdrawn from fellowship and abandoned the apostolic testimony about Jesus. Now the author draws the distinction, implicit throughout this passage but stated here explicitly for the first time, between truth and falsehood.
The significance of the aorist e[graya (egraya, “I have…written”) in 2:21. Once again, e[graya (egraya) in 2:21 is an epistolary aorist which refers to the entirety of the present letter.285 In the extended discussion of the significance of the switch from the present tense forms of gravfw (grafw) in 2:12-13 to the aorist e[graya (egraya) in 2:14, we concluded that the difference between the tenses was a stylistic one, and both presents and aorists referred to the entire letter of 1 John. The present tense of gravfw (grafw) is used prior to 2:14 (1:4, 2:1, 2:7, 2:8, 2:12, 2:13) while the aorist tense of the same verb, e[graya (egraya), is used in 2:14 ff. (2:14, 2:21, 2:26, 5:13) with no significant or apparent difference in meaning.286
The force of the o{ti (Joti) in each of the three instances it occurs in 2:21. There are three possibilities that have been suggested for the three Joti-clauses here: (1) All three uses should be understood as causal: “I have not written to you because you do not know the truth, but because you do know it, and because no lie is of the truth” (so nasb, niv, neb).287 (2) The first two uses should be understood as causal, while the third is substantival of content, i.e., declarative or recitative Joti: “I have not written to you because you do not know the truth, butbecause you do know it, and that no lie is of the truth” (so kjv, rsv, tev, nrsv).288 (3) All three uses should be understood as substantival of content (i.e., declarative or recitative Joti): “I have not written to you that you do not know the truth, but that you do know it, and that no lie is of the truth” (NET Bible).289 Each of these options can be evaluated as follows:
(1) Understanding all three of the Joti-clauses as causal leaves no direct object expressed for the verb e[graya(egraya, “I have [not] written”). If the Joti-clauses were causal we should have expected a direct object such astau'ta (tauta, “these things”) to be expressed.290 From a logical standpoint, although a causal idea might fit for the first clause, it is difficult to see a causal idea in the second and third clauses.291 The author would be writing to the readers because they already know the truth and because no lie is from the truth, reasons for writing which seem to stretch even the Johannine tendency to circular reasoning and ambiguity.
(2) Another possibility takes the first two Joti-clauses as subordinate to the verb e[graya (egraya), but the third as subordinate to oi[date in the second Joti-clause: “I have not written to you because you do not know the truth, butbecause you do know it, and [you know] that no lie is of the truth” In this case, however, the kaiv (kai, “and”) that introduces the third Joti-clause would have to be understood as explanatory or epexegetical (and thus translated “namely”), while the simplest and most natural reading of this kaiv (kai) would be coordinative or connective (“and”).
(3) Understanding all three of the Joti-clauses as substantival of content would allow all three to be subordinate to the verb e[graya (egraya) as compound direct objects.292 In terms of the meaning, the author would be writing to reassure his readers (a) that they do indeed know the truth (Joti1, 2) and (b) that no lie is of the truth (Joti3). It is important to note, however, that such a precise distinction in the nuances of all three of the Joti-clauses may not have occurred to either the author or the readers.293
The implication of seeing the three Joti-clauses not as causal but as content is that the author is primarily writing here with pastoral concern for his readers, who in light of the disruption caused by the departure of the schismatics need to be comforted and reassured. To suggest, especially in the case of the third Joti-clause, that a causal idea was involved (“because no lie is of the truth”) would imply that the author’s concerns in writing are primarily abstract and philosophical rather than pastoral.294
The significance of the “lie” versus “truth” motif in 2:21. The contrast between truth and falsehood was introduced in 1 John 1:6, where the person who claims to have fellowship with God and yet continues to walk in darkness is characterized as “lying” and “not practicing the truth.” In 2:4 the person who says “I have come to know him” and does not keep his commandments is said to be a “liar” and “the truth is not in him.” Here in 2:21 the “lie” represents not just falsehood in general, but the teaching of the opponents, which is not the result of ignorance or self-deception, but involves an active hostility to the “truth” (“truth” as represented by the authoritative apostolic christological teaching of the author).
2:22 Who is the liar but the person who denies that Jesus is the Christ? This one is the Antichrist: the person who denies the Father and the Son.
Summary
The opponents have already been identified as antichrists (v. 18). They are now identified as liars. Their false teaching involves a denial that Jesus is the Christ. As the next verse explains, a denial of the Son, Jesus, also involves a denial of the Father.
Exegetical Details
For the first time in the letter, the author explicitly states the christological position of the secessionist opponents (“denies that Jesus is the Christ”). The Greek text literally reads, “the one who denies that Jesus is not the Christ,” but the double negative in Greek does not cancel out the negation as it does in English. Rather it is a holdover from the form the opponents’ denial took in direct speech: they would have said, “Jesus is not the Christ.” To avoid confusion the negative particle oujk (ouk) must be left untranslated in English.295
The referent of oJ yeuvsth (Jo yeusths, “the liar”) in 2:22. Although yeuvsth (yeusths) in 1 John 2:22 has the Greek article, many interpreters understand it to mean only “the person who tells lies” in general. The second half of the verse, however, associates this person with the Antichrist296 – “this one is the Antichrist: the one who denies the Father and the Son.” In John 8:44 the devil (oJ diavbolo, Jo diabolos) is called a “liar” and “the father of lies.” The referent of oJ yeuvsth (Jo yeusths) here is not the devil himself, but Satan is certainly in the background of the associations surrounding the Antichrist in most of the New Testament literature, especially in the book of Revelation. Here in 1 John 2:22 oJ yeuvsth (Jo yeusths) refers collectively to the secessionist opponents themselves, who according to their false christology are said to be “denying that Jesus is the Christ.” As in 2:18, the opponents are identified with the Antichrist because they foreshadow the Antichrist who is yet to come. They are “liars” because they deny that Jesus is the Christ, and since lying is linked to the coming of the Antichrist (John 8:44), the opponents themselves may be labelled collectively “the Liar” and “the Antichrist” (cf. 2 John 7).297
The meaning of the phrase “denies that Jesus is the Christ” in v. 22. Frequently this is understood to mean that the secessionists, in making this denial, were rejecting the orthodox interpretation of the incarnation, according to which Jesus’ divine and human natures were fully united. Furthermore it is common to connect such views with the gnostic Jewish-Christian heretic Cerinthus, who is thought to have lived and taught around a.d. 100.298 What we know about the teaching of Cerinthus comes primarily from a reference in Irenaeus (Adv. haer.1.26.1). Cerinthus apparently claimed that the divine emanation (or aeon) “Christ” came upon Jesus in the form of a dove at his baptism by John and departed from him before his crucifixion. Cerinthus apparently denied the incarnation on the grounds that the virgin birth was an impossibility, rejected the sacrificial death of Jesus on the cross because Christ as “spirit” could not suffer, and distinguished between a “lower” god from whom Jesus came and a “higher” god from whom came the Christ. However, this is about all we know about his views, and it is far from certain that the false christology put forward by the secessionists in 1 John is related to the Cerinthian heresy. There are really no indications anywhere else in 1 John that such views are held by, or lie behind the views of, the secessionists.299
The relationship between “the Christ” and “the Son” in 2:22-23. The Greek term Cristov (Cristos) is used to translate the Hebrew term “Messiah”; both mean “anointed one” and refer to the deliverer of Israel promised in the Old Testament. At some point in the New Testament the term begins to appear more as a proper name and less as a title. Some have understood this to be the case in 1 John,300 although in this particular verse the parallelism between “Christ” and “Son” seems to indicate a close correspondence between the two terms as titles; it is possible to argue that they are synonymous here.301 Such a correspondence is also indicated by the parallels between “Christ” and “Son of God” in John 11:27 and 20:31.
2:23 Everyone who denies the Son does not have the Father either. The person who confesses the Son has the Father also.
Summary
To have the Father is to be in relationship with the Father through the Son. The opponents who deny that Jesus is the Christ (v. 22) have no relationship with the Father regardless of what they claim. In contrast the person whoconfesses Jesus has the Father also.
Exegetical Details
The meaning of the phrase toVn patevra e[cei (ton patera ecei, “have the Father”) in 2:23. It has been suggested that this expression is synonymous with “to know God” or “to have fellowship (koinwniva [koinwnia]) with God.” The meaning of the phrase probably goes beyond this, however. There are a number of statements in the Gospel of John which portray the believer as possessing (“having”) certain things through Jesus Christ: “life” (3:16, 36; 5:24, 26; 6:40, 47, 53), “his [God’s] word” (5:38), “the love of God” (5:42), “the light of life” (8:12) or simply “the light” (12:35-36), “peace” (16:33), and “my [Jesus’] joy” (17:13). It appears that the expression “have the Father” in 1 John represents a Johannine development in terminology that grows out of the usages in the Gospel of John just listed, a development which is logical because it serves to summarize almost all of the divine realities mentioned in the Gospel of John as possessed by the believer. It is to be in relationship with the Father through the Son, even as Jesus can say in John 14:11 and 17:21 “I am in the Father and the Father is in me.” Thus “everyone who denies the Son” is not in relationship with the Father through the Son.302
Here again in 2:23 the author is speaking of the opponents, whom he characterizes as “denying the Son” and therefore “not having the Father” either. In contrast, “the person who confesses the Son” (i.e., acknowledges that Jesus is the Christ, cf. 2:22) “has the Father also.” It is difficult to escape the clear implication that the opponents, as far as the author is concerned, are not genuine Christians.
2:24 As for you, what you have heard from the beginning must remain in you. If what you heard from the beginning remains in you, you also will remain in the Son and in the Father.
Summary
In this verse the second person plural (“you”) resumes from 2:20. There is something of a wordplay: the Greek verb translated remain (mevnw, menw) can also be translated reside. The phrase what you heard from the beginningrefers to the apostolic eyewitness testimony about Jesus (see 1 John 1:1-3) as contrasted with the false teaching of the secessionist opponents. This teaching must remain (reside) in the readers in order for them to remain (reside) in the Son and in the Father.
Exegetical Details
The referent of o} hjkouvsate ajp= ajrch' (Jo hkousate ap’ archs, “what you have heard from the beginning”) in 2:24.Once again, this refers to the apostolic eyewitness testimony concerning the significance of the earthly life and ministry of Jesus, as emphasized in the prologue (1:1-4) and mentioned again in 2:7 and (indirectly) in 2:13-14. The “beginning” referred to here is thus the beginning of Jesus’ self-revelation to his disciples who are the source for this eyewitness testimony.303
The meanings of the three uses of mevnw (menw) in 2:24 (“must remain…remains...will remain”). Here there is a play on words with the three uses of mevnw (menw) in 2:24. The first two uses in the verse refer to realities which “reside” in the believer, which in this case refers to the message the readers have heard from the beginning.304The third use refers to the permanence of relationship between both God and Jesus with the believer. This is the only instance in the Gospel and Letters of John where the verb mevnw (menw) refers to the believer residing in boththe Father and the Son together, although a similar concept (without using mevnw) is expressed in John 17:21 and1 John 5:20.305 Implicit in the use of mevnw (menw) here is also the situation with the opponents, who did not “remain” in the apostolic teaching (1 John 2:18-19) and thus do not “reside” in the Son and in the Father.
The repetition of the phrase “If what you heard from the beginning remains in you” in v. 24. The repeated phrase takes the form of a conditional statement. Although the repetition of the phrase is apparently regarded by some interpreters as redundant (and therefore virtually omitted by some translations, apparently for stylistic reasons),306 it serves to emphasize the connection with the apostolic eyewitness testimony about Jesus which has become so important to the author’s argument in 1 John, and in addition prepares the way for the final clause of v. 24 (“you also will remain in the Son and in the Father”).307
2:25 Now this is the promise that he himself made to us: eternal life.
Summary
Eternal life is the promise of God to those who remain in the Son and in the Father (see previous verse). It is the possession of the recipients of the letter as genuine believers. The secessionist opponents do not possess it because they did not remain, which shows they do not reside (see the previous verse for discussion of the wordplay).
Exegetical Details
The referent of aujtov (autos, “he himself”) in 2:25. Once again, the third person pronoun may refer to God the Father, to Jesus Christ, or (ambiguously) to both. (1) The closest specified referent is patriv (patri, “Father”) at the end of 2:24, a reference to the God the Father. One might object that the reference to “the promise” here implies a reference to Jesus, since a promise made in the Gospel of John would have to be made by Jesus. But this is not conclusive, because Jesus gave the disciples the commandment to “love one another” in John 13:34-35, yet in 1 John the author always attributes the commandment to God (1 John 2:3, 2:4, 3:22, 3:23, 3:24, 4:21, 5:2, 5:3 [2x];2 John 4, 6). (2) The mention of both God the Father and Jesus the Son in the final clause of 2:24 would seem to argue for a(n ambiguous) reference to both. (3) Nevertheless, the primary referent here is probably Jesus Christ, because (a) the use of aujtov (autos) here is somewhat emphatic (“he himself…”) and (b) the author’s dispute with the opponents in 2:22-23 (the immediately preceding context) centered around the denial of the Son, so it is more likely in context that the Son would be emphasized here.
The relationship of kaiV au{th ejstin (kai Jauth estin, “now this is”) at the beginning of 2:25 to preceding and following material. As usual, it is difficult to know whether the phrase kaiV au{th ejstin (kai Jauth estin) refers to the preceding or following material, or both. The same phrase occurs at the beginning of 1 John 1:5, where it serves as a transitional link between the prologue (1:1-4) and the first major section of the letter (1:5-3:10). It is probably best to see the phrase here as transitional as well. The accusative phrase at the end of v. 25, thVn zwhVn thVn aijwvnion (thn zwhn thn aiwnion, “eternal life”), stands in apposition to the relative pronoun h}n (Jhn, “that”), whose antecedent is hJ ejpaggeliva (Jh epangelia, “the promise”).308 Thus the “promise” consists of “eternal life;” but the promise is also related to the concept of “residing/remaining” in 2:24. The person who “resides/remains in the Son and in the Father” thus has this promise of eternal life from Jesus himself. Consistent with this, 1 John 5:12 implies that the believer has this eternal life now, not just in the future, and this in turn agrees with John 5:24, which speaks of a transfer from death to life in the present rather than in the future.309
2:26 These things I have written to you about those who are trying to deceive you.
Summary
Again, those who are trying to deceive you refers to the secessionist opponents with their false teaching. One of the author’s primary purposes in writing 1 John is to protect his faithful followers from the false christological teaching of the opponents.
Exegetical Details
The referent of tau'ta (tauta, “these things”) at the beginning of 2:26. Once again we are faced with the difficulty of identifying the referent of the pronoun. The construction is the same as in 1 John 2:1 and 1:4. In 2:1 we concluded that tau'ta (tauta) refers to the preceding statements made in 1:8-10 about sin as viewed by the opponents and by the author. On the other hand, tau'ta (tauta) in 1:4 looks ahead to the remainder of the letter and especially to the similar statement in 5:13, and thus refers to the entire contents of the present letter. The context of 2:26, with its reference to the opponents as “those who are trying to deceive you,” suggests a reference to the entire letter here also, as in 1:4. Thus when the author refers to “these things” in 2:26, he means everything he has written concerning the opponents in the present letter.
The referent of tw'n planwvntwn (twn planwntwn, “those who are trying to deceive you”) in 2:26. The idea of “deception” has already occurred in 1 John 1:8, which we understood to be an indirect reference to the activity of the secessionist opponents, who with their innovative but false christology were trying to deceive members of the community to which the author is writing. Here, as later in 3:7, the reference to the opponents is direct: they are portrayed as attempting to carry out the deception at the present moment. The participle is best understood as a conative present310 since (as far as the author is concerned) this has been attempted but has not been carried out completely. As a matter of fact, the purpose of the author in writing the letter is to forestall such a deception of the readers by the opponents.311
2:27 Now as for you, the anointing that you received from him resides in you, and you have no need for anyone to teach you. But as his anointing teaches you about all things, it is true and is not a lie. Just as it has taught you, you reside in him.
Summary
The author now addresses his readers directly as those who possess the indwelling Holy Spirit (the anointing which you received from him). The indwelling Spirit who resides in believers provides assurance to them that they do indeed reside in him (i.e., Jesus, the Holy One who anoints believers with the Spirit, cf. 1 John 2:20).
Exegetical Details
The author now turns to the faithful members of the congregation to which he writes, addressing them once again (cf. 1 John 2:20, 24) with the plural pronoun (uJmei', Jumeis) which adds some emphasis to the statement.
There are a number of textual problems in 1 John 2:27 which originate, no doubt, from the obscure grammar and syntax of the verse. As R. Brown has wryly observed, “The basic problem throughout these variants is not corrupt copying but the author’s propensity for writing obscure sentences.”312
The meaning of the cri'sma (crisma, “anointing”) which the readers have received in 2:27. This term is discussed at 1 John 2:20, where it previously occurred. As we concluded there, the cri'sma (crisma) is a reference to the indwelling Holy Spirit that believers have received from Jesus at their conversion.
The referent of the first aujtou' (autou, “from him”) in 2:27. This probably refers to the same person as aujtov(autos) in 1 John 2:25, which we understood there as a reference to Jesus Christ.313 This is also in agreement with our conclusions concerning the identification of tou' aJgivou (tou Jagiou, “the Holy One”) – the one who is responsible for the cri'sma (crisma, “anointing”) given to believers in 2:20 – which we also interpreted as a reference to Jesus Christ.314
The meaning of mevnei (menei, “resides”) in 2:27. This use of mevnw (menw) refers to a divine reality which ‘resides’ in the believer, which in this case is the cri'sma (crisma, “anointing”) which believers have received from Jesus Christ. The cri'sma (crisma, “anointing”) refers to the indwelling Holy Spirit which has been given to them at their conversion.315
The (understood) subject of ejdivdaxen (edidaxen, “[it] has taught”) in 2:27. This could be either “he” (referring to Jesus Christ)316 or “it” (referring to the “anointing”). It is fairly certain that the latter is the case, since the “anointing” is the subject of the verb didavskei (didaskei, “teaches”) in the preceding parallel clause (“his anointing teaches you about all things”).
It is difficult to know whether to read the second half of 2:27, beginning with ajll= (all’, “but”), as a single sentence (with Brooke, Marshall, and Smalley) or a compound sentence (with Bultmann, Haas, and Brown).317 As a single sentence v. 27b would read, “But as his anointing teaches you about all things, and is true and is not a lie, and just as it [or, he] has taught you, you reside in him.” Taking the second half of 2:27 as a compound sentence seems preferable, since the parallelism thus created makes the final kaqwV (kaqws)-clause understandable rather than awkward and parenthetical. In translation this would read: “But, as his anointing teaches you about all things, [so] it is both true and is not a lie; and just as it [or, he] has taught you, you reside in him.” As Brown admits, “The weakness of this approach is that the kai, ‘and,’ beginning line 27f, must be understood as ‘so,’ introducing an apodosis.”318 Brown opts for the interpretation in spite of this, citing the “rythym” of the verse. I tend to agree, and see the emphasis at this point on the assurance believers possess as a result of the Spirit dwelling in them.
The mood of menete (menete) in the final clause of 2:27. The verb menete (menete, “[you] reside”) may be read as either indicative mood (“you reside in him,” so asv, nasb, NET Bible) or imperative mood (“reside in him,” so niv, nrsv, nlt, esv, tniv). The same verb is found in the following verse, 2:28, but the address to the readers there seems to indicate clearly an imperative. By analogy some interpreters (e.g., Bultmann, Smalley)319 have called for an imperative here, but others have seen the presence of an imperative in the following verse as suggestive of an indicative here, so that the author is not repeating himself.320 An indicative is slightly more likely on contextual grounds. Up to this point the thrust of the author has been reassurance rather than exhortation, and an indicative here (“…you reside in him”) balances the indicative in the first part of 2:27 (“the anointing which you received from him resides in you…”). However, in the following verse the author switches from reassurance (the readers at the time he is writing still ‘reside/remain’; they have not yet espoused the teaching of the opponents) to exhortation (now he is writing so that they will indeed ‘remain’ and not succumb to the deception of the opponents).
251 Among those who see the break as marking a new major part of the letter are Marshall (The Epistles of John, 147) and Schnackenburg, who saw the transition as one from didactic and parenetic to a focus on the “last hour” (The Johannine Epistles, 129).
252 Malatesta suggests a somewhat more complicated arrangement of seven strophes: 2:18, 2:19; 2:20-21; 2:22-23; 2:24; 2:25; 2:27. Three of these he divides further into three distichs each: 2:19; 2:20-21; 2:22-23 (Interiority and Covenant, 193-95).
253 This explanation of the phrase goes back to Augustine in the fourth century a.d.
254 Brown, The Epistles of John, 330.
255 Smalley, 1, 2, 3 John, 95-97.
256 Although (against Smalley) it is certainly possible (and indeed may be preferable) to read John 14:3 as a reference not to the parousia (second coming), but to the post-resurrection return of Jesus to the disciples and/or the post-exaltation coming of the Spirit/Paraclete. The phrase th'/ oijkiva/ tou' patrov mou (th oikia tou patros mou, “my Father’s house”) in John 14:3 was used previously in John 2:16 to refer to the temple in Jerusalem. The evangelist in 2:19-22 then reinterpreted the temple to refer to Jesus’ body, which was to be destroyed in death and then rebuilt in resurrection after three days. Even more suggestive is the statement by Jesus in 8:35, “Now the slave does not remain (mevnei, menei) in the household (th'/ oijkiva/, th oikia) forever, but the son remains (mevnei,menei) forever.” If in the imagery of the Fourth Gospel “my Father’s house” is ultimately a reference to Jesus’ body, the relationship of monhv (monh) to mevnw (menw) in 14:3 suggests the permanent relationship of the believer to Jesus and the Father as an adopted son who remains in the household forever. In this case the “dwelling place” is “in” Jesus himself, where he is, whether in heaven or on earth. The statement in v. 3, “I will come again and receive you to myself” then refers not primarily to the parousia, but to Jesus’ post-resurrection return to the disciples in his glorified state, when by virtue of his death on their behalf they may enter into union with him and with the Father as adopted sons. Needless to say, this bears numerous similarities to Pauline theology, especially the prominent concepts of adoption as sons (uiJoqesiva, Juioqesia) and being “in Christ” (ejn Cristw'/, ejn Cristw). It is also important to note the emphasis in the Fourth Gospel itself on the present reality of eternal life (5:24, 7:38-39, etc.) and the possibility of worshipping the Father “in the Spirit and in truth” (4:21-24) in the present age. Thus there is a sense in which it is possible to say that the future reality is present now. See further R. H. Gundry, “‘In my Father’s House are many Monai’ (John 14,2),” ZNW 58 (1967): 68-72; J. McCaffrey, The House With Many Rooms: The Temple Theme of Jn. 14, 2-3 (AnBib 114; Rome: Pontifical Biblical Institute, 1988).
257 For yet another perspective on the meaning of “the last hour” see Schnackenburg, who stated, “With the warning signal ‘antichrists have come,’ all he means to say is that his own time has an eschatological importance. He wishes to alert his leaders [sic] in the face of impending danger. …He has the same eschatological sense of time that all of the other New Testament authors have” (The Johannine Epistles, 133).
258 Such an assumption is reasonable in light of the close connections between the Fourth Gospel and 1 John, including the probability of common authorship. See the sections in the introduction entitled “Authorship of 1 John” and “Structure and Purpose of 1 John.”
259 On the usage of w{ra (Jwra) in John see C. Haas, M. de Jonge, and J. L. Swellengrebel, A Translator’s Handbook on the Letters of John (UBS Helps for Translators 13; London: United Bible Societies, 1972), 62.
260 See also Dodd (The Johannine Epistles, 51), who felt that due to the dire situation he was addressing the author had in mind the imminence of the end, and so was not necessarily mistaken in his anticipation of it.
261 The term is also used only very infrequently in the early church: it occurs only in Polycarp (To the Philippians7:1) quoting 1 John 4:2-3 and 2 John 7.
262 Smalley does acknowledge the textual problem associated with the omission of the article, however, in which some mostly later manuscripts add the article before ajntivcristo (1, 2, 3 John, 91 n. a, 98). In his suggestion about the use of the term as a proper name Smalley is following Westcott (The Epistles of St. John, 70).
263 Like the occurrence here, the usage in 2 John 7 involves a textual problem in which some manuscripts omit the article, but the articular reading is more likely original.
264 The first meaning is illustrated by the usage of terms like “antigeneral” for the enemy general, many instances of which occur in accounts of the Roman civil wars. Caesar, for example, wrote two works “Anticato” (“against Cato”). See W. Grundmann, TDNT 9:571, n. 500. Thus the use of the term in relation to Christ can denote the one who is “against Christ,” but could also be use of a “replacement” or “counterfeit” Christ.
265 So Bultmann, The Johannine Epistles, 36.
266 Dodd, The Johannine Epistles, 49-50.
267 Smalley, 1, 2, 3 John, 100.
268 Note the author’s use of the first person plural pronoun hJmw'n (Jhmwn, “us”), which suggests he viewed himself as part of this Christian community. Some have understood the first person plural pronoun to refer to Christianity at large, however, and others have viewed it merely as a literary device employed by the author to gain sympathy from his readers or to make it easier for them to identify with them.
269 Schnackenburg, The Johannine Epistles, 140 (although somewhat inconsistently on the previous page [139] Schnackenburg refers to “heretical teachers who have been expelled from the community”).
270 Houlden, A Commentary on the Johannine Epistles, 78.
271 See the previous paragraph as well for background.
272 See Westcott, The Epistles of St. John, 71, and Brooke, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Johannine Epistles, 53.
273 At least that is the way they would have been viewed by the faithful members of the congregation who remained behind when they left. See J. N. S. Alexander, The Epistles of John (Torch Biblical Commentaries; London: SCM, 1962), 67.
274 Brown refers to the expression as “characteristically Johannine in the NT” (The Epistles of John, 340).
275 BDF §448(7).
276 Greek purpose clauses are frequently translated by the English infinitive.
277 The same construction also occurs in other NT literature as well, e.g., 2 Peter 1:20, “every prophecy of scripture is not a matter of one’s own interpretation” = “no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation.”
278 Cf. other modern translations: nab “Their desertion shows that none of them was of our number”; nasb “it might be shown that they all are not of us”; niv “their going showed that none of them belonged to us”; nkjv “that none of them were of us”; nrsv “by going out they made it plain that none of them belongs to us.”
279 Theoretically it could also refer to “the act of anointing,” but in this context it is hard to see how the readers of the letter could possess an “act of anointing.” See Smalley, 1, 2, 3 John, 105.
280 For a thorough discussion of the uses of the term cri'sma (crisma) in the LXX, Jewish intertestamental literature, Josephus, classical Greek literature, and the early church fathers see the excursus in Strecker, The Johannine Letters, 65-66.
281 Westcott (The Epistles of St. John, 73) and Marshall (The Epistles of John, 153) argued for a reference to the means of anointing (an object, the anointing oil itself). More likely, however, the result of being anointed is what is in view here; cf. the rendering of the rsv and nrsv “you have been anointed by the Holy One”; so also Haas, et al., A Translator’s Handbook, 65.
282 Note the stress on this in the prologue. Dodd saw here a reference to the word of God which indwelt the believer in order to teach and to witness to the truth, arguing for a Greek background rather than a Jewish one (The Johannine Epistles, 58-64; cf. also Malatesta, Interiority and Covenant, 204). Dodd concluded that the cri'sma(crisma) in vv. 20 and 27 “is the Word of God, that is, the Gospel, or the revelation of God in Christ, as communicated in the rule of faith to catechumens, and confessed in Baptism” (63). One of the reasons Dodd argued for this is that a reference to God’s Word here constitutes an appeal by the author of 1 John to an objective standard of truth against which orthodoxy and faith may be tested, while an appeal to the Spirit, whose “anointing” enabled the individual Christian to be the arbiter of truth, left the door open to the dangers of subjectivism (63-64). In light of the controversy with the secessionists and their false christology, it might be attractive to appeal to such a solution, since the author of 1 John is obviously seeking to counter the opponents’ claims to have received new and innovative revelation about who Christ is, presumably as a result of the teaching ministry of the Spirit/Paraclete. However, against the attractiveness of this proposition must be weighed the usage elsewhere in both the Fourth Gospel and the Johannine Letters (outlined in the text above), which seems to point strongly to a reference to the Holy Spirit as the referent of the anointing here.
283 Smalley, 1, 2, 3 John, 107.
284 Ritual anointing did become part of the Christian baptismal liturgy later on (cf. Tertullian, de Baptismo 7). W. Nauck argued for the practice in 1 John in Die Tradition und der Charakter des ersten Johannesbriefes: Zugleich ein Beitrag zur Taufe im Urchristentum und in der alten Kirche (WUNT 3; Tübingen: Mohr-Siebeck, 1957), 94-95; 147-82. However, there is no evidence such a practice was current either in heretical or orthodox circles during the first century (see Marshall, The Epistles of John, 153-54).
285 So Smalley, 1, 2, 3 John, 109.
286 For a more complete discussion of the alternation in tenses see the discussion at 2:12.
287 So Brooke, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Johannine Epistles, 57.
288 So Dodd, The Johannine Epistles, 47, 55, and Smalley, 1, 2, 3 John, 109.
289 So Bultmann, The Johannine Epistles, 38 n. 13; Haas, et al., A Translator’s Handbook, 66-67; Marshall, The Epistles of John, 156 n. 30, and Brown, The Epistles of John, 350.
290 I.e., “I have not written [these things] to you.” Although it is true that in Koiné Greek direct objects were frequently omitted when clear from context, the more natural way to read the phrase here without a direct object would be as a declarative or recitative Joti, so here the direct object would be virtually required in order to indicate clearly a causal nuance.
291 Marshall notes the logical difficulty with the causal force here: “The writer is not giving instruction to his readers because of their ignorance (after all they have the anointing!) but because he can build on the fact of their knowledge of the truth” (The Epistles of John, 156 n. 28).
292 Brown states, “Grammatically this is the easiest and makes good sense” (The Epistles of John, 350). Marshall prefers this option as well, although he characterizes the resulting construction as “elliptical and harsh, but not impossible” (The Epistles of John, 156 n. 30).
293 For a similar discussion of parallel Joti-clauses, see the previous discussion at 2:12.
294 As noted by Smalley, 1, 2, 3 John, 109.
295 BDF §429.
296 See the previous discussion of “Antichrist” at 2:18.
297 I consider a collective reference to the secessionist opponents here as “the Liar” to be more likely than Brown’s notion that the community to which the author is writing had an expectation of an apocalyptic figure known as “the Liar” which was then fulfilled by the opponents at the time of writing (The Epistles of John, 351). See also the discussion of the views of the opponents in paragraph 9 of the introductory section, “The Opponents and Their Teaching in 1 John” for the significance of their denial that “Jesus is the Christ.”
298 In one way or another Westcott (The Epistles of St. John, 75), Stott (The Epistles of John, 111), and Marshall (The Epistles of John, 157-58) all connect Cerinthus with the teaching of the secessionist opponents in 1 John.
299 Although one can argue, as Brown does, that the docetic christology of Cerinthus originally derived from a misinterpretation of the evangelist’s teaching about Jesus in the Gospel of John (The Community of the Beloved Disciple, 150-54), it is not necessary to do so in order to argue that the teaching of the secessionist opponents in 1 John did indeed derive in part from mishandling the Fourth Gospel.
300 So Smalley (1, 2, 3 John, 113), who argues that the usage of Cristov (Cristos) in 1 John 5:1 and 2 John 9support the term’s use as a proper name. However, this certainly does not appear to be the case in 1 John 5:1, and does not necessarily have to be the case in 2 John 9 either.
301 See Haas, et al., A Translator’s Handbook, 67-68; also M. de Jonge, “The Use of the Word Christos in the Johannine Epistles,” in Studies in John (NovTSup 24; Leiden: Brill, 1970), 66-74).
302 See further on the expression “have the Father” H. Hanse, TDNT 2:823-24; J. Eichler, NIDNTT 1:637-38; Malatesta, Interiority and Covenant, 204-209. Although Bultmann (The Johannine Epistles, 38 n. 22) suggested the expression “to have God” originated with gnosticism (and thus represents an anti-gnostic polemic here) such a connection is difficult to prove.
303 See the further discussion of the phrase ajp= ajrch' in 1:1, 2:7, and 2:13. Here in 2:24 it is possible to see the “beginning” as the beginning of the readers’ Christian experience (so Brooke, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Johannine Epistles, 60; Marshall, The Epistles of John, 160) but it is much more likely that the term is to be understood in terms of previous references in 1 John 1:1, 2:7, and 2:13-14 (so Smalley, 1, 2, 3, John, 118).
304 See the discussion of the phrase “from the beginning” in the previous paragraph.
305 See the survey of the different uses of mevnw (menw) in 1 John at 2:6.
306 E.g., niv “See that what you have heard from the beginning remains in you. If it does, you also will remain in the Son and in the Father.” Cf. also nlt, tniv.
307 See Haas, et al., A Translator’s Handbook, 70.
308 See BDF §295.
309 On the concept of “eternal life” see further E. Hoffmann, NIDNTT 3:70-74; Malatesta, Interiority and Covenant, 216-18.
310 See BDF §319. Wallace states regarding the “true conative” that “an attempt is being made in the present time” (Exegetical Syntax, 534 [italics his]).
311 For further discussion of the significance of the verb planavw (planaw, “I deceive”) see the discussion at 1:8.
312 Brown, The Epistles of John, 360.
313 See the discussion of the referent of aujtov (autos) in 1 John 2:25 above.
314 See the discussion of the phrase tou' aJgivou (tou Jagiou, “the Holy One”) in 1 John 2:20.
315 For a survey of the different uses of mevnw (menw, “I reside/remain”) in 1 John, see the first occurrence of the term in the letter in 1 John 2:6.
316 So Houlden, A Commentary on the Johannine Epistles, 75; also Brown, The Epistles of John, 361.
317 In favor of a single sentence are Brooke (A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Johannine Epistles, 63), Marshall (The Epistles of John, 163 n. 57), and Smalley (1, 2, 3 John, 125-26). In favor of two sentences are Haas, et al. (A Translator’s Handbook, 72) and Brown (The Epistles of John, 360-61).
318 Brown, The Epistles of John, 361. Such an understanding is possible grammatically (BDF §442.7 is mentioned in this regard by both Brown and Marshall), and Marshall lists the suggested parallels (1 John 2:18;John 15:9; 17:18; 20:21 along with Rom 1:13 and Matt 18:33), but discounts them as inexact (The Epistles of John, 163 n. 57).
319 Bultmann, The Johannine Epistles, 38; Marshall, The Epistles of John, 163 n. 56; Smalley, 1, 2, 3 John, 127.
320 So Westcott (The Epistles of St. John, 81), Brooke (A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Johannine Epistles, 63-64), and Brown (The Epistles of John, 361), who notes, “In any case there is little difference of meaning, for even the indicative would stress the necessity of continuing to abide in him.”
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How Allah has fooled the Muslims?
15 Sep, 2007
- “He has created man from a sperm-drop; and behold this same (man) becomes an open disputer.”
Other English translations of the verse read:
Pickthall: “He hath created man from a drop of fluid, yet behold! he is an open opponent.”
Shakir: “He created man from a small seed and lo! he is an open contender.”
Dawood: “He created man from a little germ: yet is he openly contentious.”
We are commenting on this verse, because in it is described the process Allah uses in the creation of man. But before taking it up, we must mention briefly the process Allah used in creating Adam, the first man of the world.
When Allah decided to create, with His hands, the first man in one of the seven Gardens, He picked up a handful of black dust (or rotten soil) from the earth and after mixing it with water, He created the mud, the basic raw material of the human body. Turning the mud into sounding clay, Allah hastily fashioned with it Adam’s body and after breathing His spirit into it, He completed the creation of the fist man to whom alone[1] Eve – the fist woman of the world - and the entire human race owe their origin.
With the beginning of procreation of both male and female offspring by Eve, one would assume Allah had streamlined the creation of mankind through the sexual intercourse of men and women, but the verse under our discussion makes it clear that that is not the case, and, instead, Allah, in His infinite wisdom, continues to create humans with His own hands. How does He do that?
The Quran tells us, though obliquely, that He collects a drop of despicable semen from the backbone and the ribs of man’s body[2] and after transforming it into a congealed blood, He plants it with His own hand in the woman’s womb. To us, this resembles the artificial inseminations humans perform on their females as well as on the females of some animals. The congealed blood becomes a lump and out of this lump He makes bones, which He then clothes with skin.[3] Because man is created with sperm, therefore, he cannot claim a higher status among other creations.
Humans have, perhaps, learned the technique of artificial insemination from Allah. Not only from men, they
also extract semen from animals to put it in the bodies of their females. Here is how humans extract semen from the horse:
Horse’s semen being collected for artificial insemination.
But does the process Allah supposedly employs in the creation of man match with the scientific findings?
Because all humans are created with sperm, there is no reason for them to claim a higher status among other creations
No. Science does not support such a reckless claim. It thus describes the conception process a woman goes through after having sex with a man:
Week one:
As soon as a sperm cell penetrates the egg, fertilization occurs, usually high up in the fallopian tubes. At the moment of
fertilization the baby's gender is determined (some sperm produce males, others produce females). Right at the start, the fertilized ovum contains a full compliment of genetic codes: twenty-three chromosomes from mom, and twenty-three from dad. Occasionally, two eggs are fertilized by two sperm, resulting in fraternal twins. Less commonly, one egg is fertilized by one sperm and then divides in two, with identical twins as the result.
Week two:
By day seven, the embryo resembles a microscopic raspberry and implants into the lining of the mother’s uterus. As baby burrows into the blood-rich lining a few drops of bleeding or spotting may occur. This blooming ball of life, called a blastocyst – meaning, "sprout pouch," begins to organize into groups of several hundred cells. Some of these cells take root into the plush uterine lining; others arrange themselves in clusters and cavities, each with a different human destiny. The uterus, responding to the presence of the embryo, begins to form a primitive placenta, which transfers nutrients from mother's blood into the developing baby and facilitates disposal of the baby's waste products. As the placenta develops, it begins to produce human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), a hormone that keeps the uterine lining in place and stimulates its growth by keeping the levels of estrogen and progesterone high. HCG is released into the mother's bloodstream at an increasing rate as the placenta develops. By the end of the second week, a pregnancy test will be able to detect HCB in the mother's urine.
Week three:
The woman’s menstrual period is late and she may suspect she is pregnant. Her rising hormone level is likely to cause her to begin feeling pregnant. Pregnancy hormones notify the ovaries not to ovulate again, and the ovaries, via hormonal messengers, notify the pituitary gland in the brain to no longer stimulate menstruation.
Within three weeks, what started out as a single cell has grown to millions of cells that now begin to differentiate into three types of cells: those that will become the nervous system, skin, and hair; those that will make up the gastrointestinal tract and those that will form the circulatory, genito-urinary and musculo-skeletal systems. By the end of the third week, a rudimentary heart tube begins to beat and circulate blood. The woman is just beginning to feel pregnant and already the baby making is well under way.
Week four:
During this week, baby grows to the size and shape of a curved grain of rice. An umbilical cord, containing three distinct blood vessels, appears. Along the outer rim of baby's tiny body, blocks of tissue stack up to form the backbone. Tiny buds, soon to become arms and legs, emerge from the body. The ball-like heart divides into chambers and pumps blood into already formed major vessels. Specialized ultrasonic equipment can even detect a regular heartbeat. Tiny pits now present in the baby's head mark the spots where eyes and ears will form. Lobes of baby's brain and a primitive spinal cord develop. Rudiments of future organs such as the trachea, esophagus, stomach, mouth, liver, gull bladder, and thyroid appear. Amazingly, by the time most mothers-to-be attend their first prenatal check-up, most of their baby's major organs are well on their way.
Ten growth milestones from five weeks to nine weeks:
By the end of the fifth week, baby is the size of a green pea (or about 0.4 inches). Pits that become the eyes, ears, nose and mouth begin to show. More than one million new cells are added to baby's growing body each minute.
By six weeks, baby is ½ inch long, and ultrasound can show a fluttering heartbeat of about 140 to 150 beats per minute (twice as fast as that of a grown up man).

At seven weeks, baby is around an inch long or the size of a small olive. Elbow, wrist and knee joints are obvious. Researchers estimate that by seven weeks, one hundred thousand new nerve cells are created every minute.
At eight weeks, baby is around the size of a large olive at 1½ inches long and ½ ounce in weight. All the internal organs that will be present in the fully-grown infant have been formed by eight weeks.
Developing baby is now called a "fetus" and is beginning to look like a miniature human being.
Allah was not aware of the female’s egg, so He did not mention it in the Quran. He did not know that it is the testicles, the two glands in the scrotal sac beneath the penis, that create semen or the sperm; hence His claim that He extracts sperm from the backbone and ribs of the man.
He did not know that sperm or semen does not become ‘congealed blood’ and that blood plays no role in the making of babies; He also did not know that the developing baby in mother’s womb does not look like a lump of flesh or leech, hence His inane and foolish utterances in the Quran that compelled Abul Ala Mududi to admit: “This refers to the different stages of development of the child in the womb of its mother. This description is based on observation and not on scientific research. …”[4]
Mududi has said everything on Allah’s claim on man’s creation, leaving nothing for us to say, we will, therefore, move on to other verses of the Sura to see what else the all-knowing Allah has said in them for our knowledge and guidance.
Allah has also said:
16:5: “And cattle He has created for you (men): from them ye derive warmth, and numerous benefits, and of their (meat) ye eat.”
This verse does not say how Allah creates the cattle, but we can assume He creates them following the same procedure He follows in case of man. Like Adam, He must have created, in one of the Gardens, the first males of all the animals with His own hand and then breathed in them His spirit. He then created their mates out of their ribs and sent them to the different parts of the earth to sing His praise. Since He does not want to lose His control over the animals, He extracts semen from their males and inserts it into their females’ uteruses, thus helping them to continually multiply their number on earth.
Multiplication of the cattle is essential for the humans, as they derive warm clothing[5] from them and other benefits, including the eating of their meat. What direct benefits the humans derive from the wild animals is not mentioned in the Quran.
Like the Pagans, some animals are unclean and impure. The pig and the dog are the prominent unclean animals; even an accidental contact with them turns the Muslims into impure beings. They can remove their impurity only after taking a full bath.
This being the situation, we are tempted to ask: does not Allah’s use of His hand in creating the pig and the do make Him impure? Does He purify Himself with a full bath? And if the pig and the dog are unclean, then what makes Him create them?
Allah’s statement that the people of Muhammad’s time derived their clothes from animals indicates that they used their hides to cover themselves up. These also provided them warmth in the winter. Since sleeping, especially in the noonday heat of the desert, was impossible for the people, Allah asked them to take it off their bodies so that they could sleep in comfort. Otherwise, there was no reason for Him to designate the early morning, the noontime of the day and the late hours of the night to be the three occasions of their undress.[6]
Our assumption that the people of the seventh century Arabia wore animal skins should give us an indication of poverty level with which they lived their lives. Even though clothes were readily available in the markets of Syria to which they traveled to buy the essentials of their life, yet the fact that the most of the Arabs might have worn animal skins at home suggest that they did not have the extra resources, which they needed to buy their clothes with.
But these same pitiably indigent people in just a little over one hundred years became the rulers of an empire that stretched from the borders of India to the Atlantic Ocean – the largest empire that the world has seen so far. Many may ask: how was it possible?
It was Muhammad’s words of encouragement and his predatory warfare that had inspired them to venture out of their territory and to take over others’ land, wealth and women to make their unbelievably hard life easier and pleasurable. Had they kept themselves confined to their own territory, and continued living, until oil was discovered in their soil, on whatever they had been subsisting from time immemorial, we would now be living in a different, but peaceful world.
To understand the phenomenon, we may refer to India’s case. Had the Muslims not invaded, taken over and ruled it for over three hundred years, India would not have had, in 1940’s, as many Muslim as it did then. If India did not have a large number of Muslims on its soil, it would neither have been divided into two countries in 1947, nor it would have continued to have the problems it has today with its Muslim population, the territory of Kashmir and Pakistan.
It was not only India that has suffered in the past or is suffering now on account of its Muslim population and their religious doctrines, the Philippines and China are two other countries, which have been facing separation movements from them as well. What will happen to the territorial integrity of these countries cannot be said with a certainty at this time, but were are sure these countries are going to live with the Muslim menace for a very long period of time.
Along with the above two countries and others, the United States of America and Europe are also likely to face, in the future, various challenges from their Muslim inhabitants. With the increase in their number, there will come a day when they would like to carve out a country of their own from the existing territories of America and of the European countries. Unless the Americans and the Europeans decide to take measures in time to protect their territorial integrity, there is a likelihood that their territories may end up being divided into Muslim and Christians states, or face armed struggles with their Muslim neighbors before surrendering their independence to them.
That the Muslims are bent upon turning the non-Muslims of the world into Dhimmis is written large on the walls all over the world. If we want to save ourselves from their wrath, then we must act now; failure to do so might not only prove fatal for us, it might as well rob us of all the freedom and liberties we enjoy today.
Drawing His listeners’ attention to the pride they take in, and the beauty of, the cattle He creates; describing their ability to carry heavy loads to distant lands, which they could not reach without painful toil (humans had not yet invented vehicles and airplanes, so Allah did not mention them in His revelations); making known that He creates horses, mules and donkeys for humans to ride and for show as well as many other things of which they had no knowledge; that Allah took upon Himself the responsibility to show His listeners the right way, when there exist crooked ways, too, and that He would have guided all of them, if He had so willed, Allah declared:
16:10: “It is He Who sends down rain from the sky: from it ye drink, and out of it (grows) the vegetation on which ye feed your cattle.”
16:11: “With it He produces for you corn, olives, date-palms, grapes, and every kind of fruit: Verily, in this is a Sign for those who give thought.”
These two verses, read in conjunction with verse 2:61, make clear that it was only the rainwater on which the Arabs of the seventh century depended to support their life and that their agriculture also depended on it. The kind of the agricultural products they produced is also clear from these verses.
Since the Arabs were not used to eating rice and bread, the Quran has not said anything about rice or wheat. Since they did not know how a mango looked like, the Quran is silent about it. Since they had never seen, in their lives, vegetables like spinach and cauliflower etc. which are grown mostly in milder climates, Allah skipped their names from His all-encompassing Book.
The fact that the Arabs depended for drinking and agricultural purposes on rainwater, which they found in the waterholes of the desert, it should not be inappropriate for us to discuss here briefly the story of Mecca’s Zamzam well, the origin of which Muslim scholars trace to a mysterious act of Allah. They claim:
“Historically, Ibrahim - a prophet in Judaism, Christianity and Islam - has links to both places. Maqam Ibrahim, in fact, was named after him. Centuries ago, he was ordered to leave his wife Hagar and child, Ismail, in a dry valley without vegetation or water in the place where the Kaaba was later built. As the infant Ismail cried out in thirst, his mother ran repeatedly back and forth between two small hills called Al-Safa and Al-Marwa in the hope of finding water. As her baby cried, his feet rubbed the sand where miraculously, a spring bubbled out at his feet. Thus Zamzam water was found and the Well of Zamzam was created. "
The name 'Zamzam' comes from the Arabic verb 'zam' meaning 'gathering' or 'enclosing' - which is what Hagar did as the water bubbled up from the earth at her son's feet; she cupped and gathered the sand around the water to preserve it. Because of the story, the Well of Zamzam is also known as The Well of Ismail. The well is also known as 'Marwiah' meaning quenched or quenching; 'Shabaah' meaning fullness and 'Barakah' meaning blessing as well as other names mostly unfamiliar and no longer used. The well has existed for four thousand years with 26 centuries between Prophet Ismail's time and the time of Abdul Muttaleb, the grandfather of Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him). Furthermore, the Well of Zamzam and its water have long been revered by the people of Makkah, specifically by the Quraish, one of Makkhah's noble and prominent clans. A later Islamic ruler, Abu Jaffar Al-Mansour, built a protective fence around the well and paved the area around it with white marble. The dome that sheltered the well was studded with rubies. During the reign of King Faisal ibn Abul Aziz, laboratory tests were conducted on Zamzam water samples. After analysis, it was found that the difference between Zamzam water and other water (city water) was in the quantity of calcium and magnesium salts. The content of the elements were slightly higher in Zamzam water. More significantly, the water contains fluorides that have an effective germicidal action. Zamzam water's appeal has always been universal. The water has never been chemically treated or chlorinated. In most wells, bacteria and fungi grow which makes the water unpalatable because of bad taste and bad odor. In Zamzam water, however, there was no sign of bacteria or fungi.
The well, which has never run dry has always maintained a very distinctive taste. Its uniqueness has been universally recognized as pilgrims from all over the world visit the Kaaba every year. In 1373 H a pump was installed in the Zamzam well and the surrounding pipes were extended as well. Zamzam was made available and accessible for all visitors with water cooled by Zamzam ice-cubes all over the Holy Mosque of Makkah as well as the Holy Mosque in Madinah. The well is 4 meters in width and 35 meters deep located under the eastern part of the Kaaba and south of Maqam Ibrahim.
To this day pilgrims and visitors return to their families and friends carrying this mysterious liquid which springs from the Well of Zamzam: the spring that continues to flow, revered and unique along with Maqam Ibrahim, engraved upon human history and memory.”[7]
The assertions of the writer is not tenable because of the following reasons:
1. At the time Hagar had taken the infant Ishmael to where the Ka’aba stands today, she must have been in a lactating state. According to the writer, she put down her child on the ground, when he started crying, and began running “repeatedly back and forth between two small hills called Al-Safa and Al-Marwa in the hope of finding water.”
The question is: Why Hagar had started running in search of water, when she could have easily quenched her infant’s thirst with the milk of her breast?
2. It appears from the writer’s claim that the Zamzam’s water was percolating through the top layer of the extremely hot sand on which Hagar had left her infant to roast under the desert’s scorching sun. Had the water been flowing any deeper from the surface, the infant could never have made it come out to the top of the sand, no matter how hard and for how long he rubbed his legs over the mouth of the well.
Believing that our suppositions are well founded, we ask: If the infant could precipitate the flow of the water by merely rubbing his tiny legs on the surface of the sand, what had blocked it from overflowing, despite being forced to come out of the well by the pressure that the continuously percolating water must have been building up at the well’s bottom?
3. The writer claimed: “The {Zamzam’s} water has never been chemically treated or chlorinated. In most wells, bacteria and fungi grow which makes the water unpalatable because of bad taste and bad odor. In Zamzam water, however, there was no sign of bacteria or fungi.”
We do not have to rebut the above claim, for the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia has already done it with a research report, authored by the Zamzam Studies and Research Center (ZSRC), which it set up in order to “to optimize supply and distribution of Zam Zam, while making sure that sustainable supply limits are not exceeded in order to prevent wastage or possible depletion of the water well.”
The report, inter alia, stated: “ZSRC also seeks to estimate sustainable well yield and recommend measures to ensure that sustainable supply limits are not exceeded. The research aims to present solutions to these complex problems through an integrated approach to water catchment management and conservation.
Through these actions, the quality and quantity of supply from the Zam Zam well can be sustained to meet the spiritual needs of the world’s one billion Muslims,” said the abstract. In order to manage demand, water from Zam Zam well is pumped, treated and stored in underground storage tanks on a continuous basis at the moment. Before distribution among consumers and transportation to Madinah, Zam Zam water is also treated by a series of sand filters, micro filters and ultraviolet disinfection.”[8]
The writer’s attempt to prop up Islam with his falsehood notwithstanding, there is another question that all sensible persons should ask the Muslims to answer: If the well of Zamzam had come into being at the command of Allah, then why the Saudi authority should worry about its depletion?
Is not the water of the ‘mysterious’ Zamzam supposed to last for ever, without help from men?
Allah has also stated:
16:15: “And He has set up on the earth mountains standing firm, lest it should shake with you; and rivers and roads; that ye may guide yourselves;”
To find out to what extent Allah has lied through the Quran, let us go over a pertinent fact, which we have come to know after Mt. St. Helen erupted at 8:32 hours of May 18, 1980. It is situated in America’s State of Washington.
St. Helen was a tall and symmetrical mountain before it was struck by the earthquake that measured 5.1 on Richter scale. Shaken by the quake, its northern face collapsed in a massive rock debris avalanche. Nearly 230 square miles of forest was blown over or left dead and standing. At the same time a mushroom-shaped column of ash rose thousands of feet skyward and drifted downwind, turning day into night as dark, gray ash fell over eastern Washington and beyond. The eruption lasted for 9 hours, during which period of time, it dramatically changed the mountain’s face as well as its surroundings.
Some other after-effects of the eruption were as follows:
-In both the Blow-down and Standing Dead areas, the sudden collapse of the volcano's north flank released the tremendous pressure that had been building inside the mountain over a long period of time. Expanding gasses and steam from the molten rock caused a series of huge explosions. These explosions ripped through the sliding avalanche of debris.
-The blast of rocks, ash, and gasses swept across the land at speeds up to 670 miles an hour. Inside the blast, temperatures reached 600 degrees Fahrenheit.
-The blast traveled as far as 16 miles north of the volcano. It spread over an area of about 150 square miles.
-The force of the blast stripped trees from hillsides as far away as 6 miles from the volcano.
-Further away, as the blast began to slow down, trees were knocked over or snapped in half.
-Trees standing around the edges of the blow-down zone were killed by the intense heat of the blast.
Now, if we believe in what Allah has said was His purpose behind setting up mountains on earth, in that event, should we not ask ourselves:
-Why did Mt. St. Helen shake, when it was not supposed to do so?
-Why it caused so much of devastations, when it was supposed to protect mankind and its surroundings?
-Would it not have been a great favor from Allah to mankind, if He had capped off the volcanoes that create the earthquakes, instead of creating the mountains that fail to make the earth steady, when struck by them?
-Why almost all the earthquakes have occurred so far, or are going to occur in future, in the mountain ranges of the earth?
-Why volcanoes occur in many locations near the edges of Earth's large and rigid plates?
-Why the earth’s edges are replete with rigid plates that are likely to cause earthquakes and volcanic eruptions in future, when Allah wanted to protect all humans, flora and fauna from their destructive effects?
To understand the extent of life-threatening risks that we humans face from the rigid plates, this map of the glob should tell us all:

Volcanoes occur in many locations near the edges of Earth's large, rigid plates, shown here.
Are the Muslims willing to admit that their Allah has fooled them by telling them things, which are not true?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
[1] Cf. The Quran; 7:189.
[2] The Quran; 86:5-7.
[3] The Quran; 23:14.
[4]In his commentary on verse 16:4 in the internet edition of “Towards Understanding the Quran.” This comment cannot be found in the print edition of his book, Tafhimul Quran. .
[5] The word Pickthall has used in his translation of the verse.
[6] The Quran; 24:58.
[7] Arab News, January 29, 2004.
[8] Arab News, January 17, 2005.
Proof Jesus Died Just Before the Passover Feast in 33 AD
This one seems obvious to many people, but it can quickly
become confusing due to a number of factors: how the scriptures
were translated, how and when the Jewish feasts occur, who
was alive and ruling at the time, and some indication from a
prior prophecy and the history behind that prophecy.
That last one was already covered in a previous article concerning
Daniel 9, where Jesus was predicted to die in 33 AD. So here is a
starting point to reference from, was the prediction correct, or not?
History records 3 prominent rulers mentioned in the New
Testament at the time that Jesus was said to have died:
* Tiberious Caesar ruled from 14 AD - 37 AD
* Herod Antipas ruled from 4 BC - 39 AD, he divorced his wife
and married his half brother Herod's wife, which caused
John the Baptist to condemn that marriage, and John then
lost his head for saying such.
* Pontius Pilate ruled from 26 AD - 36 AD.
Pilate's rule looks to limit Jesus's year of death to a
span of only 10 years time. The gospel of Luke says that
John the Baptist started preaching in the 15th year of
Tiberius Caesar's rule: 14 AD + 15 - 1 = 28 AD
Given John the Baptist's arrival, needing to preach for a while
first (let's guess a year for John to preach), and that Jesus
had to later minister for more than 3 years, Jesus had to have
died some time after: 28 + 1 + 3 = 32 AD, and also had to die
before Pilate left his position in 36 AD. Therefore, Jesus died
some time between 32 AD and 36 AD.
The 33 AD prediction falls within the 32 AD to 36 AD time span.
What about the Jewish feasts, do they help confirm the year?
To answer this, you have to know more about the Passover and
which day Jesus would have died on.
The bible records which day Jesus died on:
John 19:31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation,
that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on
the Sabbath day, (for that Sabbath day was an high
day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken,
and that they might be taken away.
So clearly, Jesus died just prior to the Sabbath, and it was
also a Sabbath that was a "high day" of the Passover feast week.
What is a "high day"?
The high days in the Passover feast week, are the first and last
days of the 7 Passover feast days of eating unleavened bread. The
first high day could start any day of the week, due to the fact
that the month of Nissan would start on the day that two witnesses
would see the new moon show up, and that day of the week varied
each year. They would kill the Passover lamb on the 14th day of
Nissan, and the unleavened bread would be eaten from the 15th
on for 7 days. The 2nd high day, was the 7th day or last day of the
7 day Passover feast. For that Passover the year Jesus died, the
first high day was said by John to have been the same day as the
Sabbath.
In simple terms showing what occurred per day (while noting that days
back then ran from evening to evening, and that the Sabbath starts
on Friday evening), this is how it looked to John back then describing
which day it was in the verse above:
"day" What was occurring that day
-------------------------------------------------------------------
|
Thursday evening to | Nissan 14, Day of Preparation, Jesus dies
Friday evening | during the daylight hours on Friday.
|
-------------------------------------------------------------------
| Nissan 15, Sabbath, the first day of the 7
Friday evening to | day Passover feast week begins, it's also
Saturday evening | called the 1st "high day" of the Passover
| feast week. Jesus's body is in the tomb.
-------------------------------------------------------------------
etc...
(the 7 days of the passover feast continue on, with the last day of
the passover feast week being the 2nd "high day")
It is possible to find all years where the first high day fell on
the Sabbath to verify which years are possible candidates for the
year of Jesus's death. As it turns out, between the years 27AD
and 38AD, there are only 2 years where the high day fell on a Sabbath
and those two years are 33AD and 36AD. So given this, during the
period of 32AD to 36AD (after John started preaching plus Jesus's
preaching, yet before Pilate's rule ended), the only years possible
for Jesus to have died in, are 33 AD and 36 AD.
The 36 AD year is ruled out for a number of reasons. Essentially
too many things had to happen during that year, and one account
given, becomes void when 36 AD is checked as a possible crucifixtion
date. Pilate was told to return to Rome in 36 AD, he arrived there
after Tiberius Caesar died, before Passover in 37AD. Herod Antipas
was in a war with Aretus in 36AD and wouldn't have had time to be
across the Dead Sea during the preparation of Passover at Jesus's
trial. Herod Antipas was said to have been desiring to see Jesus,
but in 36 AD, that was during a time of Herod's war and preparing
for war with Aretus. There is also the issue that if Jesus died
in 36 AD, with a 3.5 year ministry that makes him 32.5 (or older)
at the start of it, and Luke said he "began to be about 30" (29.5?)
at that time. His birth as the next article states, had to happen
soon after the tetrarchy was formed so the people could be
registered under their specific tetrarch, and that happened only
2 or 3 years after 4 BC, making Jesus too old for Luke's statement
that Jesus "began to be about 30". The 33 AD crucifiction year,
does not have any of the issues the 36AD year has.
The only year that matches all accounts, is 33 AD.
As the Sabbath is Friday evening until Saturday evening and
Jesus died just prior to the Sabbath (they didn't want his body
to be left on the cross during the Sabbath), Jesus had to have
died prior to Friday evening.
Therefore, Jesus died just prior to the 1st Passover feast day
(which that year fell on the Sabbath), on Friday before evening,
in 33 AD.
Is there more confirmation of this?
Absolutely.
At the last supper, Jesus told them that he wanted to eat the
Passover feast with them, but never would, in fact, he didn't
even eat the night before he died. Jesus handed them the bread
at that last supper, but didn't eat any of it himself.
Jesus was the first born, and the first born would be fasting
on the day the Passover lamb was sacrificed. That 'day' would
be Thursday evening, to Friday evening, and Jesus would be
fasting during that time. Friday afternoon when Jesus was
crucified, it was just before the Passover feast's first day,
just before the evening of the Sabbath, when they would have
all ate together later that night on the Sabbath... but by then,
Jesus was dead, dead before the start of the 1st day of the
Passover feast, having died during the time of the lambs being
sacrified prior to the first day of the feast of unleavened
bread.
In the translations of the verses, there are instances
where it's a little confusing concerning the days of
the Passover. For example:
Mt 26:17 Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread
the disciples came to Jesus, saying to him, Where
wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the
Passover?
Obviously, the preparation for the Passover is BEFORE the Passover
feast week. Typically it takes days or even weeks to clean
the rooms. That verse should have been and can be translated as:
Mt 26:17 Then to first honor the feast of unleavened bread the
disciples came to Jesus, saying to him, Where do you
want us to prepare for you to eat the Passover feast?
Again, that preparation could take days, where they'd first have
to clean all traces of the leaven from the place they'd be having
the Passover feast, and that cleaning is before the Passover started.
So they were asking Jesus before the Passover, and NOT on the
1st day of Passover.
You can find confirmation of this in a prior verse:
Mt 26:2 Ye know that after two days, is the feast of the Passover,
and the Son of man is betrayed to be crucified.
In other words, Jesus just told them that in two days, the feast
of the Passover would start, and the verses continue on where they
then replied back to him "Where should we go prepare for the Passover
feast?". Obviously they weren't asking him on the first day of
the Passover feast week, but had to be asking him prior to the
first day... that same 2 days before when Jesus said they needed
to go to Jerusalem. The Mt 26:17 verse to make proper sense with
the Jewish feasts, it should have been translated to english with
regards to the timing of events in those feast days such that
they'd simply be replying back on the same day, "where should
we go to prepare?".
Retranslating other similar verses:
Mk 14:12 Then to first honor the time of unleavened bread after
they would kill the Passover lamb, his disciples said
to him, "Where do you want us to go and prepare, that
you may eat the Passover feast?"
Lu 22:7 But approaching was the time of unleavened bread, with
the Passover to be killed.
8 And he sent Peter and John, saying, "Go and prepare us
the Passover feast, that we may eat.
The translators basically didn't check to insure that the translated
english description matched with regard to the Old Testament laws of
the Passover feast. Choosing proper english wording from available
translation options, helps substantially in conveying what Jesus
had said and when he had said it, verses the actual events occurring
then. There is nothing wrong with the original scriptures concerning
the verses, but there is a problem with how the scriptures were
translated to english.
Regardless, Jesus knew he was being betrayed by Judas Iscariot
2 days before the Passover started, so the timeline of Jesus's
death looks like:
Weds - They were in Simon the leper's house in Bethany. Jesus
told them he was being betrayed (by Judas Iscariot), and
the woman put the spikenard on Jesus's head and feet for
his burial, while Judas complained that the spikenard
could have been sold for a lot of money, and the money
should have been given to the poor. John said that Judas
had a bag of money at the time that the chief priests gave
Judas to tell them who Jesus is and point him out. Jesus
reminded them that in two days the feast of the Passover
would start and they had to move on into Jerusalem.
The disciples knew they had to prepare for the Passover
so they asked Jesus where they'd be having the Passover
so they could go there and start preparing for it. Jesus
then tells them to follow a man bearing a pitcher of
water to where ever he went in the city to a new house,
with a new large room where they'd be preparing the
Passover feast at. In that they didn't yet know where
the house was, Judas wouldn't know, and couldn't report
back to the high priests or soldiers. And this delayed
Jesus being taken, while Judas looked for an opportunity
where he'd know where Jesus was that was close enough
to go get the soldiers to turn him in.
Thurs - They entered Jerusalem, Jesus rode on an ass's colt and
was praised by them, mostly over Lazarus being raised. They
quickly became disenchanted in that they expected Christ
would abide forever, yet Jesus told them he'd die. That
evening they went to the large room for the last supper,
Jesus didn't eat. Judas had the money bag, he was anxious
to turn Jesus in, and he now knew where they were staying for
the Passover feast. Being in Jerusalem, it was closer to
the chief priests and soldiers than it was when they were
back in Bethany. Now it was easier for Judas to walk off
and quickly get the soldiers. Judas then left the last
supper, to go get permission to get the soldiers and to
then bring them to take Jesus. But they left while Judas
was gone. That night, Judas helped the soldiers find Jesus,
he then identified him, the soldiers took him and his
disciples deserted him.
Fri - Jesus was taken to prison, interrogated, beaten, ridiculed,
mutilated, and crucified until he died. John confirms the
the day by saying Jesus was there being questioned by Pilate
and accused by the chief priests and elders (of which Jesus
did not defend himself against their claims) on the day of
preparation for the feast days of Passover. The preparation
day is when the Passover lambs would be slaughtered, much like
Jesus was about to be after Pilate washed his hands of it
and told the chief priests and elders that Pilate would be
innocent of Jesus's death. The chief priests and elders
convinced the crowd to demand they crucify Jesus and let
Barabbas go free. Just before evening, after Jesus died,
he was taken down off the cross, wrapped in linen and laid
in the tomb. The Sabbath then started that evening, as did
the 1st day of the 7 day feast of Passover, the feast of
unleavened bread.
Sat - Sabbath continues through the daylight hours, no work allowed
to finish Jesus's burial. The chief priests and the Pharisees
went to Pilate to tell him to place guards at the tomb as
they'd heard Jesus say he'd rise again after the third day.
Pilate told them to guard it and make it as sure as they liked.
During the evening, Jesus's disciples stayed away from the tomb
probably because it was: too dark to see in the tomb, there
were now guards there guarding it, and they probably feared
using lamps as that would draw attention to themselves, them
being seen as followers of Jesus after he'd been crucified
the previous day by the chief priests, elders and crowd.
Sun - Early morning, the women went to the tomb to see about finishing
the burial, the angel appeared with the appearance of lightning,
and the guards fell to the ground. The angel rolled back the
stone while telling the women that Jesus had risen, and for
them to go tell the others.
The 3 days and nights article discusses the prophecy of Jesus being
in the hands of sinful men from Thursday evening, until Sunday morning.
Further discussion of the above mentioned prophecy in Daniel 9
described in a another article, the calculation for that is as
follows:
* 360 days for a prophetic year
* 365.242199 days per standard year
* 7*7+62*7 prophetic years from the order to restore Jerusalem
* Artaxerxes gave the order to restore Jerusalem to Nehemiah in 444 BC
* There is no 0 BC year, 1 BC jumps to 1 AD in 1 year of time.
Therefore, the messiah shows up, as per Daniel 9 in:
-444+1+(7*7+62*7)*(360 prophetic days/yr)/(365.242199 day/yr) = 33 AD
The accounts line up in many ways with Jesus dying in 33 AD, before the
Passover feast's 1st day (or "high day", which was also on the Sabbath),
and on the same day as the Passover lambs were being slaughtered that
year. There is no other year where the accounts all align.
God made it all, Jesus died for our sins.
Return
Note: The above information was written by John P. Boatwright and is freely given. The information is simply my opinion based on how I perceive the content discussed. Anyone reading such should use their own judgement as to whether or not the information has any value to them. You may copy portions of the above opinions as long as a reference to this page is included and no text within said portion is altered. If copied to another medium other than the internet, include the entire text. The above content may change over time.
Best wishes.
========================================
1John 2:18 Jesus said "Children, it is the last hour, and just as you heard that Antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have appeared. We know from this that it is the last hour
2:19 They went out from us(christianity), but they did not really belong to us, because if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us. But they went out from us to demonstrate that all of them do not belong to us.2:20 Nevertheless you have an anointing from the Holy One, and you all know.
The prophesies in the Bible, that was written hundreds of years before MUHAMMAD, prove that MUHAMMAD is a false prophet.
1. 2Pe 2:1 ¶ But there were also false prophets among the people, even as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Lord who bought them, and bring on themselves swift destruction.Muhammad denied the blood bought salvation of Christ.
2. Ga 1:8 But even if we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel to you than what we have preached to you, let him be accursed
Muhammad brought another Gospel by an angel.
3. Lu 24:7 "saying, 'The Son of Man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men, and be crucified, and the third day rise again.'"
Jesus said He would be crucified, Muhammad calls Him a liar.
4. Mt 26:28 "For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
Jesus said He shed His blood for sins. MUHAMMAD INSULTED JESUS CHRIST, AND SAID HE DID NOT.
5. Joh 10:36 "do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'? Jesus confessed He IS the Son of GOD, Muhammad, again called Him a liar,
Islam is the beast described in The Revelation of Jesus Christ He spoke to JOHN; Re 13:16 He causes all, both small and great, rich and poor, free and slave, to receive a mark on their right hand or on their foreheads,
and that no one may buy or sell except one who has the mark or the name of the beast, or the number of his name.
Here is wisdom. Let him who has understanding calculate the number of the beast, for it is the number of a man: His number is six hundred and sixty-six.
Yusuf Ali Translation:
Quran [002:113] The Jews say: "The Christians have naught (to stand) upon; and the Christians say: "The Jews have naught (To stand) upon." Yet they
(Profess to) study the (same) Book. Like unto their word is what those say who know not; but Allah will judge between them in their quarrel on the Day of Judgment.
What about Muslims today? What are Muslims standing upon??? Even the above verse itself is sufficient to discredit Quran as fake becuase Sura 3:3 is FAKE.
[003:003] It is He Who sent down to thee (step by step), in truth, the Book,
CONFIRMING what went before it; and He sent down the Law (of Moses) and
the Gospel (of Jesus) before this, as a guide to mankind, and He sent down
the criterion (of judgment between right and wrong).
Muslims, can you seriously answer the false charge on Quran 2:113 that Christians are mocking the Jews that they have nothing to stand on. Where is the verse in the Gospel which Muhammad claimed to be CONFIRMING as true when Quran 2:113 cannot even be confirmed to be found in the Holy Bible of the Christians!!!
Acts 4:36 And Joses, who by the apostles was surnamed Barnabas, (which is, being interpreted, The son of consolation,) a Levite, and of the country of Cyprus
The Epistle of Barnabas is genuine in term of the author was a Christian but not fake Christian. Prophet Barnabas is believed to have written the Book of the Hebrews as he being the Levite from the lineage of priesthood knew all the customs and traditions of the Jews very well.
Heb 8:9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith YHWH.
Heb 8:10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith YHWH; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them Elohim, and they shall be to me a people:
Heb 8:11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know ye YHWH: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.
Heb 8:12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
Heb 8:13 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.
Only the Levite has the qualifications to write on the covenant of Yahweh God.
Heb 12:24 And to Yahushua the mediator of the New Covenant, and to the Blood of sprinkling, that speaketh better things than that of Abel.
Heb 12:25 See that ye refuse not him that speaketh. For if they escaped not who refused him that spake on earth, much more shall not we escape, if we turn away from him that speaketh from heaven:
Heb 12:26 Whose voice then shook the earth: but now he hath promised, saying, Yet once more I shake not the earth only, but also heaven.
Heb 12:27 And this word, Yet once more, signifieth the removing of those things that are shaken, as of things that are made, that those things which cannot be shaken may remain.
Heb 12:28 Wherefore we receiving a kingdom which cannot be moved, let us have favour, whereby we may serve YHWH acceptably with reverence and godly fear:
Heb 12:29 For our Elohim is a consuming fire.
Muslims have nothing to stand on??? Where is the verse in the Holy Bible which Christians say "The Jews have nothing to stand on"????
Yusuf Ali Translation:
Quran [002:113] The Jews say: "The Christians have naught (to stand) upon; and the Christians say: "The Jews have naught (To stand) upon." Yet they
(Profess to) study the (same) Book. Like unto their word is what those say who know not; but Allah will judge between them in their quarrel on the Day of Judgment.
What about Muslims today? What are Muslims standing upon??? Even the above verse itself is sufficient to discredit Quran as fake becuase Sura 3:3 is FAKE.
[003:003] It is He Who sent down to thee (step by step), in truth, the Book,
CONFIRMING what went before it; and He sent down the Law (of Moses) and
the Gospel (of Jesus) before this, as a guide to mankind, and He sent down
the criterion (of judgment between right and wrong).
Muslims, can you seriously answer the false charge on Quran 2:113 that Christians are mocking the Jews that they have nothing to stand on. Where is the verse in the Gospel which Muhammad claimed to be CONFIRMING as true when Quran 2:113 cannot even be confirmed to be found in the Holy Bible of the Christians!!!
Muhammad only plagiarized from the Jews and Christians scriptures. Muhammad admitted that he was inspired by SATAN vide Sura 22:52. Not a single Hebrew Prophet admitted that they wrestled with SATAN in order to abolish the vanities of SATAN except for Muhammad only. FAKE ISLAM = Idiot, Shameful, Lying, Adulterous, Maniac are the characters of an Arab man who claimed to recite the fake book; the same characters are acquired by the followers of this fake religion -- Mr. Satan's best friend.
Quran 22:52. Never sent We a messenger or a Prophet before thee but when He recited (the message) Satan proposed (opposition) in respect of that which he recited thereof. But Allah abolisheth that which Satan proposeth. Then Allah establisheth His revelations. Allah is Knower, Wise;
Muslims believe in the Quran inspired by SATAN. That is the reason as why there are so many discrepancies when it is compared with the Hebrew Tanakh and the Christian Bible.
What are you Muslims standing upon??? No law forming as the foundation for your faith but rather your FAKE man-made religion which Satan had corrupted it.
Yusuf Ali Translation:
Quran [002:113] The Jews say: "The Christians have naught (to stand) upon; and the Christians say: "The Jews have naught (To stand) upon." Yet they
(Profess to) study the (same) Book. Like unto their word is what those say who know not; but Allah will judge between them in their quarrel on the Day of Judgment.
What about Muslims today? What are Muslims standing upon??? Even the above verse itself is sufficient to discredit Quran as fake becuase Sura 3:3 is FAKE.
[003:003] It is He Who sent down to thee (step by step), in truth, the Book,
CONFIRMING what went before it; and He sent down the Law (of Moses) and
the Gospel (of Jesus) before this, as a guide to mankind, and He sent down
the criterion (of judgment between right and wrong).
Muslims, can you seriously answer the false charge on Quran 2:113 that Christians are mocking the Jews that they have nothing to stand on. Where is the verse in the Gospel which Muhammad claimed to be CONFIRMING as true when Quran 2:113 cannot even be confirmed to be found in the Holy Bible of the Christians!!!
Muhammad only plagiarized from the Jews and Christians scriptures. Muhammad admitted that he was inspired by SATAN vide Sura 22:52. Not a single Hebrew Prophet admitted that they wrestled with SATAN in order to abolish the vanities of SATAN except for Muhammad only. FAKE ISLAM = Idiot, Shameful, Lying, Adulterous, Maniac are the characters of an Arab man who claimed to recite the fake book; the same characters are acquired by the followers of this fake religion -- Mr. Satan's best friend.
Quran 22:52. Never sent We a messenger or a Prophet before thee but when He recited (the message) Satan proposed (opposition) in respect of that which he recited thereof. But Allah abolisheth that which Satan proposeth. Then Allah establisheth His revelations. Allah is Knower, Wise;
Muslims believe in the Quran inspired by SATAN. That is the reason as why there are so many discrepancies when it is compared with the Hebrew Tanakh and the Christian Bible.
What are you Muslims standing upon??? No law forming as the foundation for your faith but rather your FAKE man-made religion which Satan had corrupted it.
The Son of God in the Old Testament (~1000 B.C., Psalm 2:10-12)
Now therefore, O kings, be wise; be warned, O rulers of the earth.
Serve the LORD with fear, and rejoice with trembling.
Kiss the Son, lest He be angry, and you perish in the way, for His wrath is quickly kindled.
Blessed are all who take refuge in Him.
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The reason people get confuse is because THEY HAVE GREEK TRANSLATIONS.
GOD = ELOHIM
LORD = YHVH
JESUS = YESHUA
Now go back to your Bible and replace with the original language (Hebrew) and you will have revelation after revelation that God = YHVH= YESHUA
YHVH = HIS NAME IN THE SPIRITUAL REALM WHICH IS LOCATED IN HEAVEN.
YESHUA = HIS NAME IN THE PHYSICAL REALM WHICH IS LOCATED ON EARTH
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You say Jesus never said "I am your God. Worship me?" LOL! Do you demand these *exact* words, (and if so, on what basis)? Otherwise, go to John9:35-41. Jesus reveals to the blind man that He is the Son of God (9:37), the blind man *worships* Him (9:38) and (this last one is for you) the Phairsees, though sighted, refuse to believe (9:41).
John the Baptist declares that Jesus takes away the sins of the world in John 1:29, a declaration that Jesus accepted.
Are you blind?
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"If the Bible was the word of God 100% then it should not be beyond anyone's understanding"
And on what basis do you make this pronouncement? Certainly the moral code set forth by the Bible is direct and easy for all to understand. The prophetic stream is more challenging, requiring God's grace and humble study.
BTW: If the Qur'an is "easy to understand" (Q54:17), wouldn't that make all tafsir blasphemously presumptuous? Otherwise, what is the identity of DhulQarnayn (Q18:83)?
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JESUS IS GOD!..NOT GOD THE FATHER BUT GOD THE SON!..
PROVERBS 8:12-32 - SHOWS THE EXISTENCE OF WISDOM BEFORE THE WORLD BEGAN.
1 CORINTHIANS 2:7 - THE TESTIMONY TO THE EXISTENCE OF WISDOM BEFORE THE WORLD BEGAN.
"But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, the hidden wisdom which God ordained BEFORE THE AGES for our glory"
1 CORINTHIANS 1:24-THE IDENTITY OF WISDOM REVEALED..
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* " They will pick up snakes with their hands : and when they drink deadly poison ,it will NOT hurt them at all ;they will place their hands on sick people ,and they will get WELL " Mark 16:18
* Christians so bothered by the falsehood of this verse due to the many fatalities they suffered because of it .
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Mark 16:18 is a powerful promise. The experience of Apostle Paul on his way to Rome testified its truthfulness (Acts 28:2-5). My own salvation, yes, the tiny me, also testified its truthfulness (drive out demons, heal the sick, completely unhurt in a fatal accident that totaled my car...).
60seconds1000's post is copying Satan's 2nd tactic in tempting Jesus (Matthew 4:5-7). How did our Lord respond? "Do not put the LORD your God to the test." (Matthew 4:7, Deut. 6:16)
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You have not shown me the bible verse where Jesus prayed for Angels to strenthen him against satan?
Secondly, Jesus was not praying here, Jesus was only teaching his disciples on how to pray. Muslims claimed Jesus was a Muslim, how come Jesus did not teach his disciples to Bow down towards Mecca?
Yes, Jesus followed the law of Moses revealed by God not a Mosaic law that says stone those who commit adultery.
Yes, I do agree that Jesus died on the cross, and Allah is a liar.
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So let's see what we've established here: 1. The Bible claims Jesus is God. 2. Mohammad said ask people of the book meaning that the Bible was accurate during his time. 3. It is impossible for the Bible to be corrupt that late. I just wish that for once a Muslim would answer these questions. It has never happened yet.
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In gen 17:3 Did Abraham bow down many times facing Kaaba?
Secondly, Did Jesus fall with his face many times towards kaaba?
If u can prove this, I will convert to islam and i will convert alot of christians in this world.
Jesus taught his disciples how to pray, Did Jesus tell them to bow down with their face on the ground and towards kaaba?
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Servant means an employee that has self control. Slaves means a person who is acquired with no self control.
Muslims are slaves of Allah, and christians are Servants of Elohim Yahweh. Do u see the difference now?
You keep asking the same question all days.
Why did Allah and his Angels are praying upon Muhammed in Q.33:56?
Remember, Islamic translators are not honest in covering the shame of Allah.
Yusalloona was translated as Praying in Q.3:39 for Zachariah
Why not Q.33:56?
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Can i get the history of creation from your quran?
Secondly, You said the quran confirms the bible 1400 years ago, As at 1400 years ago, the bible in circulation was over a thousand copies. Allah even says in 1400 years ago that he will Protect the bible in circulation from corruption in Q.5:48
Are u saying Allah is a liar?
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Also, Mohammad's morals are no way those of a prophet. His sexual urges where uncontrollable, not to mention his primitive and simplistic views of theology, science, historical inaccuracies, etc. and his koran is a reflection of such a mentality.
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Yes, confirming the Bible and Torah, meaning they are true. Well, if they are, where are they now? And your claims hold no merit, you're just making unfounded claims. How do you know Mohammad didn't just make it all up? How do you know he's not a liar? There is no evidence. Again you didn't answer my questions, and did not comment on all the scientific errors in the koran and the Bible saying Jesus is God. I'm really tired of you escaping my questions so again, so i will exit here.
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I think you have asked a good question. God himself became A man through his spirit and God in his spiritual form is one in essence but distinct from the Man(Jesus) in purpose.
God himself said in the Jewish scripture that He will be a Prophet of the covenant.
Malaika 3:1 God says I will send a messenger(John) to prepare the way for me and the Lord, the Prophet of the covenant will appear.....
According to Malaika 3:1 Elohim will become a Prophet of the covenant. LOL
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Can u search for the word orbit in the dictionary and tell me the meaning? Orbit means a Path.
You keep calling Allah almighty, if trully Allah is almighty, Why Did Allah create Stars? Was Stars created before the earth and heaven?
Who did Allah inherit the earth and heaven from in Q.19:40?
I am still waiting for the verse where earth moves around the sun and moon and i will do shahada. LOL
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Just a few examples: Matthew 16:16-17, John 14:7-10, Jesus called himself the Son of Man, who is eternal of days (i.e. God) in the book of Matthew, "Again the high priest asked him, 'Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?' And Jesus said, "I am, and you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven" (Mark 14:61b-62). Jesus also accepted worship (John 9:37). God is omnipotent, and can come in flesh if He wants to.
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Deuteronomy 18:18. There is no doubt that refers to Christ, he is the Messiah the greatest of all prophets .Comparing Muhammad a man with the Messiah Yehoshua a spiritual creature is a blasphemy .
Here I cited some scripture If you want more I have it . Read the Bible as well than you can speak :
John 1:21,John 1:25 ,John 6:68 John 7:16 .John 8:26 ."John 8:28 John 14:10 .John14:24
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Why not challenge me on science in the quran and the bible.? Lets debate on science.
Daniel 4:11 is not a scientific discovery. It's a Vision. Muhammed saw A demon which he called An Angel, is that not A vision? Muhammed claimed this Angel normally comes to him like a ringing Bell and muhammed admitted Ringing bell is an instrument of the devil.
You lied about James 5:3. Your Gold and Silver are corroded meaning worthless.
In one word, Can u show us a round earth in the quran
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Yes according to koran the sun sets in a mud swamp. I'm an Arab Christian living abroad and I'm quite familiar with koran. As for the Bible verse you've quoted in Daniel, that is a prophecy through dreams, so this is meant to be symbolic, not scientific. James is speaking here about perishable treasures versus eternal ones.
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christians fast. We call it lenten Period. We fast for 40 days like Moses and Jesus. We fast without meals and drink, we dont fornicate or have sex with our wives. We dont shout to the whole world we are fasting like the pagans(muslims) do. Our fasting is private and it's a comunication between God and us.
Why is it that Ramadan was before Muhammed according to Sahih Muslims hadith? On fasting, Why do muslims eat and drink and fondle with their wives while on menses?
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I will dump christianity if you can find a biblical verse that supports the above like the following:
Q.9:5 Then, when the sacred months have passed, slay the idolaters wherever ye find them, and take them (captive), and besiege them, and prepare for them each ambush...LOL
Your Bukhari hadith says Muhammed fondle Aisha when she was on menses during Ramadan period. Is this what you call fastin?
Why did the pagans before muhammed used to look at the Moon for the ramadan like Muslims
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hmmm, My biological father is at home, My father in heaven is My God who created the universe, My spiritual leader is my Father in church.
Please, Jesus said the antichrist will deny the father and the son in 1 John 2:22.
Why Did Allah deny he is ever a father? Is Allah an antichrist the satan Jesus foretold in the bible?
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Mr Donkey, show me where Jesus killed 2000 pigs at a time in the bible?
No Prophet ate Camel, how come Muhammed ate it when the bible condemns it.
Deut 14:7
However, of those that chew the cud or that have a split hoof completely divided you may not eat the camel, the rabbit or the coney. Although they chew the cud, they do not have a split hoof; they are ceremonially unclean for you.
why did u ignore deut 14:7 but cherry picked Deut 14:8 that talks about pigs? LOL
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koran is packed with scientific errors, like Quran-23:14 which was plagiarized from Aristotle by the way...blood clotting cannot grow into anything. When it comes to sunrise and sunset, the koran makes countless errors and conveniently fails to state that the earth rotates: Quran 36: 38, Quran 36: 39: And my favourite: Quran 18: 86 "Till, when he reached the setting-place of the Sun, he found it going down into a muddy spring..." Really? Plagiarism AND errors. koran is false.
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Who says Mohammed was a human being? Mohammed and the quran, even all the hadiths never said Mohammed was a human being.
Mohammed was a pedophile pig that fed himself with Satan shits.
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Muhammed said he saw Allah in Q.53:8-11.
If God does not behave like a Man, why then Allah's spirit became a Man then? Are you saying Allah was stupid for behaving like a Man in Q.19:17?
LOL
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Which other gods are we associating with God? In the quran, Allah associates with other gods but muslims often deny this.
Allah says in Q.11:119 that Except Your Lord saves you, I will fill hell fire with Jinns and men altogether.
Who is the other lord here?
Allah says in Q.27:91 that I am commanded to worship the Lord of this land.
Who is Allah worshipping here?
Muhammed was a false prophet. God became a Man called Jesus who was a prophet and God. Allah swears by the moon etc
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You keep making fun of yourself. Bible God, your own God? Can you explain how bible God is the same as Allah?
Yahweh is another name for Lord in hebrew. God's name is Elohim, el shaddai abbreviated to el
Explain why Gabriel means Might Of God(el) but why is it not Might of Allah? Gabriel should be Jubrallah in arabic but why is it Jubril, might of ilah?
Please, I await your response. How is Bible God your God? Bible God does not swear by the moon but Allah swears by the moon.
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You keep making fun of yourself. Bible God, your own God? Can you explain how bible God is the same as Allah?
Yahweh is another name for Lord in hebrew. God's name is Elohim, el shaddai abbreviated to el
Explain why Gabriel means Might Of God(el) but why is it not Might of Allah? Gabriel should be Jubrallah in arabic but why is it Jubril, might of ilah?
Please, I await your response. How is Bible God your God? Bible God does not swear by the moon but Allah swears by the moon.
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Please tell the whole world that Mohd acquired the knowledge of Allah from Christian Bishop Waraqa ibn Nawfal of the Nestorian Church from Syria. Mohd was trained by his wealthy wife Khadija who was a former employer of Mohd. He learned much from Khadija for 9 years from 610 to 619AD. The root of Is-lam starts from Christianity as Bishop Waraqa was a Christian. Moslem has hijacked the Hebrews Prophets and islamized them into Moslem. This is a crime against the Christian roots from the Hebrew Abraham to Yahushua aka Jesus the Son of Yahuweh Allaha.
Yahu'shua is equal in authority to Yahu'weh Allaha for they are One: "I and My Father are One." -- John 10:30 Nothing can stop Christians from the use of Allah which is originally belong to the Christians who called Elohim in Hebrew, Allaha in Aramaic, God in English and Allah in Arabic prior to AD33.
The Day of Pentecost was 50 days after the resurrection of Yahu'shua from His death i.e. the Passover Feast or 10 days after the ascension of Yahu'shua the Messiah as He remained around on earth for 40 days after His resurrection.
Acts 2:5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.
Acts 2:6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.
Acts 2:7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
Acts 2:8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
Acts 2:9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
Acts 2:10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
Acts 2:11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of Elohim.
The Arabians are the Arabs from Arabia and they have used "Allah" in Arabic or Elohim in Hebrew for "God" around AD33.
Now Moslem has turned their back against the Christians just as Satan works behind them. Moslem please study your historical roots of Is-lam and produce 4 eye-witnesses to prove that Mohd never learn anything about Allah from Bishop Waraqa if you are truthful. Waraqa knew Mohd since he was a young boy. Khadija was a cousin of Waraqa.
So unless Moslem can prove that Khadija did not bring Mohd to consult and learn from Bishop Waraqa about Allah and Gabriel by 4 eye-witnesses vide Quran Sura 24:13, there is nothing to refrain the Christians from the use of Allah but have to proclaim that Allaha come from prior learning from Christian Bishop Waraqa instead.
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By the confession of Muhammad, Allah appointed to "every prophet an Adversary - devils and jiin who inspire in one another pausible discourse through guile" (Quran 6:112). In order to absolve him from the sin of slandering all Hebrew prophets before him, he must bring 4 witnesses as required by the law in the Quran (24:13).
Mat 7:2 (Yahu'shua said) "For with what judgment ye judge, ye shall be judged: and with what measure ye mete, it shall be measured to you again.
Any man who asserts that "every prophet" is appointed an Adversary shall be measured to him again and he have to prove that Abraham, Isaac, Israel, Moses, Jesus and all other Hebrew Prophets have similarly admitted that devils and jiin inspire them to speak.
Sura 6:112 & 22:52 are inspired by Satan from the confession of Muhammad as no prophets before him have ever uttered that "Allaha appointed to every prophet an Adversary (devil & demon)" & that Satan will interfere by inspiring false revelations to a true prophet!
Sura 6:112 (Ysf Ali)
Likewise did We make for every Messenger an enemy,- evil ones among men and jinns, inspiring each other with flowery discourses by way of deception. If thy Lord had so planned, they would not have done it: so leave them and their inventions alone.
Sura 6:112 (Pickthal)
Thus have We appointed unto every prophet an adversary - devils of humankind and jinn who inspire in one another plausible discourse through guile. If thy Lord willed, they would not do so; so leave them alone with their devising
As a matter of fact, none of the Hebrew Prophets have ever uttered that their revelations have been interfered by the inspiration of Satan and then God abolished the vanities therein so as to establish His revelations. God's law does not change and this Sura 22:52 is a blasphemous revelation from Muhammad.
Allah had in fact, defamed all Hebrew Prophets by uttering Sura 22:52 that Satan inspired them to speak and then Allah abolished the vanities therein and established his revelations. These "devils of mankind & jiin who inspire" (Sura 6:112) are not God.
Sura 22:52 (Pickthal)
Never sent We a messenger or a prophet before thee but when he recited (the message) Satan proposed (opposition) in respect of that which he recited thereof. But Allah abolisheth that which Satan proposeth. Then Allah establisheth His revelations. Allah is Knower, Wise
Sura 22:52 (Ysf Ali)
Never did We send an apostle or a prophet before thee, but, when he framed a desire, Satan threw some (vanity) into his desire: but God will cancel anything (vain) that Satan throws in, and God will confirm (and establish) His Signs: for God is full of Knowledge and Wisdom
Every Muslim who believe that Quran is the book from Allah have to prove that Muhammad spoke by inspiration of Allah only and that he was not inspired by Satan to speak Sura 22:52 which is a defamation of all Hebrew prophets before him.
Every Muslim have to prove that Quran is free from inspiration of Satan, devils and jiin because Sura 6:112 & 22:52 have insulted all Hebrew Prophets before him which of course, includes himself unless he counts himself as a
Sura 6:19 (Pickthal)
Say: What thing is of most weight in testimony? Say: "Allah is witness between me and you. And this Qur'an hath been inspired in me, that I may warn therewith you and whomsoever it may reach.
Do ye in sooth bear witness that there are gods beside Allah?" Say: I bear no such witness. Say: He is only One God. Lo! I am innocent of that which ye associate.
Sura 6:19 (Ysf Ali)
Say: "What thing is most weighty in evidence?" Say: "God is witness between me and you; This Qur'an hath been revealed to me by inspiration, that I may warn you and all whom it reaches.
Can ye possibly bear witness that besides God there is another God?" Say: "Nay! I cannot bear witness!" Say: "But in truth He is the one God, and I truly am innocent of (your blasphemy of) joining others with Him."
Job 32:8 But there is a spirit in man: and the inspiration of the Almighty giveth them understanding.
2Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of YHWH, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness
2Pet 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
2Pet 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of YHWH spake as they were moved by the Holy Spirit.
Quran 24:11
Lo! they who spread the slander are a gang among you. Deem it not a bad thing for you; nay, it is good for you. Unto every man of them (will be paid) that which he hath earned of the sin; and as for him among them who had the greater share therein, his will be an awful doom.
Note: Muhammad taught that sin can be accumulated or cancelled by good deeds. When he has sinned or slandered to the greatest extent that is "the greater share therein", he will be awfully doomed. Any Muslim who did not personally see that Jesus escaped the crucifixion will commit the "greater share therein" and he or she who repeats the false charges the most number of times in his or her life-time will be doomed.
Quran 24:12
Why did not the believers, men and women, when ye heard it, think good of their own own folk, and say: It is a manifest untruth?
Quran 24:13
Why did they not produce four witnesses ? Since they produce not witnesses, they verily are liars in the sight of Allah.
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This law applies to Muslims who are a gang to slander any person or persons e.g. Yahu'shua the Son of Yah'weh God is worshipped by the Christians and that his private part is visible. The whole KJV Holy Bible does not has the accounts of Christians worshipping Yahu'shua except for the apostle Thomas who called Him "My MarYah and My Elohim", wise men came to worship the child Yahu'shua, and Angels of YHWH who worship Him as Elohim day and night.
Quran 24:11
Lo! they who spread the slander are a gang among you. Deem it not a bad thing for you; nay, it is good for you. Unto every man of them (will be paid) that which he hath earned of the sin; and as for him among them who had the greater share therein, his will be an awful doom.
Note: Muhammad taught that sin can be accumulated or cancelled by good deeds. When he has sinned or slandered to the greatest extent that is "the greater share therein", he will be awfully doomed. So he who slandered that Yahu'shua aka Jesus is worshipped by Christians have to produce 4 witnesses who saw Yahu'shua naked and nailed on the Cross with his private part exposed and at the same time seeing the Christians prostrated before His naked body. Any Muslim who did not personally see it will be the one who committed the "greater share therein" if he or she repeats the false charges the most number of times in his or her life-time.
Quran 24:12
Why did not the believers, men and women, when ye heard it, think good of their own own folk, and say: It is a manifest untruth ?
Quran 24:13
Why did they not produce four witnesses ? Since they produce not witnesses, they verily are liars in the sight of Allah.
Four witnesses are required to prove the slandering of Yahu'shua aka Jesus was physically worshipped by the Christians as Elohim. As the slander for a honourable women requires 4 witnesses to prove their wrong-doings, the same number of 4 witnesses is required for slandering Yahu'shua aka Jesus that the Christians worship the risen Yahu'shua aka Jesus bodily. Christians worship only One Elohim who manifests in 3 forms and not 3 Gods because Yahu'shua and Yahu'weh are One -- John 10:30 "I and my Father are One."
Christians do not worship Yahu'shua who is still seen physically today but not seen because the real Yahu'shua had returned to His Father and sat at the right hand of YHWH.
Witness 1: Stephen the Disciple of Yahu'shua saw Yahu'shua at the right hand of YHWH in a vision right before he was stoned to death.
Acts 7:55 But he (Stephen), being full of the Holy Spirit, looked up stedfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of YHWH, and Yahushua standing on the right hand of the Most High,
Acts 7:56 And said, Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of man standing on the right hand of YHWH.
Witness 2:
Yahu'shua said David prophesied by the Holy Spirit about Him as MarYah (Master) to sit at the right hand of YHWH:
Mark 12:36 For David himself said by the Holy Spirit, YHWH said to my Master, "Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool."
Rev 3:21 (Yahu'shua said) "To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in His Throne."
Witness 3: Apostle Peter spoke by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit.
1Pet 3:22 Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of YHWH; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him.
Acts 5:29 Then Kepha and the other apostles answered and said, "We ought to obey Elohim rather than men.
Acts 5:30 The Elohim of our fathers raised up Yahushua, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree.
Acts 5:31 Him hath YHWH exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins."
Witness 4: Apostle Matthew heard Yahu'shua was speaking of Himself.
Mat 22:44 YHWH said unto my master, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
Mat 22:45 If David then call him master, how is he his son?
The challenge by Muhammad to produce 4 witnesses to refute the slander on any person of adultery. Let's apply it to the charge against Yahu'shua aka Jesus that Christians worship Him physically which is amounting to idolatry. As Christians have produced 4 witnesses who said that Yahu'shua aka Jesus sat at the right hand of YHWH who is Spirit, it satisfied the law from Muhammad that the number of 4 witnesses have been fulfilled. Therefore Yahu'shua is a Spiritual Being since no physical man can sit at the right hand of YHWH in Heaven.
Quran 24:13 Why did they not produce four witnesses ? Since they produce not witnesses, they verily are liars in the sight of Allah.
As Master Yahu'shua said that He sat down with His Father in His Throne and Apostle Peter affirmed that Yahu'shua the Messiah ascended into Heaven and sat onthe right hand of YHWH, these 2 eye-witnesses are sufficient to comply with the Law of Moses. Any one who accuses the Christians to worship the physical Jesus is an insult and blasphemy against Him for lying to the Christians that He ascended into Heaven and sat the right hand of YHWH.
Quran 24:4
And those who accuse honourable women but bring not four witnesses, scourge them (with) eighty stripes and never (afterward) accept their testimony - They indeed are evil-doers
Even the false Arabian god who purportedly gave the Black Stone, can accuse Muslims of lying.
Why you cannot produce 4 witnesses to support your charges against the Christians of worshipping the man, Yah'shua??? Prove to the Christians that you have seen Yahu'shua physically being worshipped by the Christians. The risen Yahu'shua aka Jesus had returned to sit on the right hand of His Father YHWH.
WTA, you are a liar in the sight of Allah as you cannot produce 4 witnesses who saw the risen Yahu'shua aka Jesus and Christians worshipping Him at the same time. None of you have seen the real Yahu'shua and therefore your charge is baseless. As the Law of YHWH requires 2 or 3 valid eye-witnesses and not mere presumption that Yahu'shua still has physical private part which implied that He did not return to sit at the right hand of YHWH. You lied against the Holy Spirit of YHWH who spoke to the apostles of Yahu'shua. May YHWH deal with you severely for insulting Yahu'shua the Son of YHWH.
Until you produce 4 eye-witnesses who saw Yahu'shua was physically still around on earth from 33AD to present, you have lied that Christians are worshipping the private part of Yahu'shua aka Jesus thereby implying that He did not ascend to Heaven.
Quran 24:13 Why did they not produce four witnesses ? Since they produce not witnesses, they verily are liars in the sight of Allah.
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WTA >>> Allah said you are liars
These are verious Sahih hadiths-from Bukhari, Muslim & Sunan Abu Dawud.
Muhammad allows his followers to rape women captured in battle:
Abu Said al-Khudri said: "The apostle of Allah sent a military expedition to Awtas on the occasion of the battle of Hunain. They met their enemy and fought with them. They defeated them and took them captives. Some of the Companions of the apostle of Allah were reluctant to have intercourse with the female captives in the presence of their husbands who were unbelievers. So Allah, the Exalted, sent down the Quranic verse, "And all married women (are forbidden) unto you save those (captives) whom your right hands possess". That is to say, they are lawful for them when they complete their waiting period." [The Quran verse is 4:24]
Abu Sa'id al-Khudri reported that at the Battle of Hunain Allah's Messenger sent an army to Autas and encountered the enemy and fought with them. Having overcome them and taken them captives, the Companions of Allah's Messenger seemed to refrain from having intercourse with captive women because of their husbands being polytheists. Then Allah, Most High, sent down regarding that:" And women already married, except those whom your right hands possess (Quran 4:. 24)" (i. e. they were lawful for them when their 'Idda period came to an end).
Sahih Muslim 8:3432
Similarly in Sahih Bukhari:
Narrated Ibn Muhairiz: I entered the Mosque and saw Abu Said Al-Khudri and sat beside him and asked him about Al-Azl (i.e. coitus interruptus). Abu Said said, "We went out with Allah's Apostle for the Ghazwa of Banu Al-Mustaliq and we received captives from among the Arab captives and we desired women and celibacy became hard on us and we loved to do coitus interruptus. So when we intended to do coitus interrupt us, we said, 'How can we do coitus interruptus before asking Allah's Apostle who is present among us?" We asked (him) about it and he said, 'It is better for you not to do so, for if any soul (till the Day of Resurrection) is predestined to exist, it will exist."
Sahih Bukhari 5:59:459
Is it right to teach men to rape captured women?
Your Allah has been exposed to be false. Your Allah created nothing but inherited the heaven and earth in Q.19:40
Your Allah does not know the history of creation.
The True God is Jehovah of the bible, His name is attached to his prophets and Angels unlike Allah that has his name attached to a pagan idol worshipper.
Tell me, Which sect do u belong? How are you sure you are going to paradise?
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Allah has no problem with the countless authors of the bible. Allah copied Matthew 19:24 to Q.7:40
Allah says in Q.80:13-16 that the scrolls are written by Pious and honoured Men.
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Allah can never be God because Allah says Earth is flat.
Jesus is God. Jesus specifically told Satan aka Allah to worship his Lord God in Matthew 4:7
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Yes, Paul was right. Jesus was a mystery. God becoming a Man was trully mysterious to muslims.
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You want us to come to islam, right? Which sect should we join since muhammed said 73 sects will be formed and all sects will go to hell fire except one.
Secondly, which sect do you belong and how are you sure you are going to paradise?
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There is no loving man in your koran NOR stated demonstration of Allah's love,by Allah, for Allah's people. Allah desires lead people astray to use them to populate hell and u also said Yes "Allah Desires to thow in to Hell Fire"
Funny!Did u know thats exactly what Satan wants?
Allah even incorporates Satan's cohorts (the jinns demons) into the Islamic fold (Surah 72:14), and concentrates on fighting against the Salvation plan of the Bible God.
You muslims are brain-dead.
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"you knew that its False Book,countless authors and countless contradiction"
Why can't u answer questions below I asked 12709919? Instead of EXPOSING your lack/confusing of the Bible?
It says in your koran Allah desires to lead people astray (Surah 6:39 , 126). He does not help those who are led astray by him (Surah 30:29), and Allah desires to use them to populate hell (Surah 32:13).
No one in their right mind will convert to Islam. Allah is a moon god of Mohammad.
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Allah in the arabic bible is a scribal error, the name was translated as God becos of the arabian custom over time that Allah is the name of God but the true name of God in arabic is ilah. Jubril, Mikail, Rafil same as Gabriel, Michael and Raphael, No Angel names bear Jubrallah, Mikaallah. and so on.
Allah is fake.
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John is Yahya, Jacob is Yahqub, Zachariah is ZachariYah, Matthiew is MatthiYahu, Jeremiah is YirmeYahu and so on.
Why John is not Allahya, Jacob to be Allahqub.
Eloi has nothing to do with the pagan name, Allah?
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God is not a man that he should lie, Allah lied that he sent 124,000 messengers that we dont know.. So, Allah cant be God.
God is not a son of man that he should change his mind, Allah changes his mind, Abrogation, so, Allah can never be God.
God says he will come as a prophet of the covenant in Malaika 3:1.
Any Man that says Allah is God should go visit a doctor. Allah says Earth is flat. LOL
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Who really is Allah really? Who is this god who demands his followers kill innocent people via Jihad, and who demands Muslims kill Muslims who no longer believe in Islam? koran says that Allah desires to lead people astray (Surah 6:39 , 126). He does not help those who are led astray by him (Surah 30:29), and Allah desires to use them to populate hell (Surah 32:13).
If Allah is really ( the Beneficent, the Merciful) why doesn't he wish that the "blasphemous" Christians repent?
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Honestly look into it, you might find out otherwise. 1st Flavius
Josephus (born 37 A.D.) and Tacitus (52 A.D.... I think) are 1st
century near contemporary SECULAR scholars who clearly document that
JEsus existed and that he was crucified. The idea that he wasn't is a
pure lie. 2nd The command from the GOd of Israel: Deu 6:4-5 "Hear, O
Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one. You shall love the LORD your
God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your might.
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Jesus "emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. (became a man) He is both God and man. As a man, He was in a lesser position than the Father. He was subject to the laws of God so that He might redeem those who were under the law;namely, sinners Gal. 4:4-5).He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross."Col. 2:9, "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form.(Father,Son,Holy Spirit)
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In the preceding verses (deuteronomy 6:4-5) the word used for God is ELOHIYM which is a plural form of God. The singular is ELOAHH. In fact throughout all the Old Testament Elohiym is used as opposed to Eloahh(look this up yourself).
related are:
Gen 2:24 Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become ONE FLESH. The husband and wife are different persons, but in mairriage (and if they have real love for each other) theybecome 1
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Gen 1:26 Then God (Elohiym-plural) said, "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness. And let them have dominion...
Gen 1:27 So God (Elohiym-plural) created man in his own image, in the image of God he created him; male and female he created them.
Gen 1:28 And God(Elohiym) blessed them. And God(Elohiym) said to them, "Be fruitful and multiply and fill the earth and subdue it...”
There's also of course, the prophecies identifying JEsus as the Messiah clearly.
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You are right, Our God is one but Allah is not one. Allah says in
Q.70:40 that I swear by the rising places that we are certainly Able.
Allah
says in Q.37:125 Will u call upon Baal and forsake the best of
creators? Is Baal a creator too beside Allah and who are the other
creators?
Yes, Jesus was circumcised but Allah has uncircumcised Dick.
Sahih Bukhari Bk8V76:No.53
Narrated Ibn Abbas: The Prophet said, "You will meet Allah barefooted, naked, walking on feet, and uncircumcised."
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6) Those too wordly and sinful to believe it because it comdemns them.
7) Unstable souls who wrrest at it to their own destruction ( 2 Peter 3:16)
8) Deceivers who use it to further their own interests ( 2 Cor 4:1-4).
9) Those who permit Satan to blind and rob them of truth (Mt 13:19-23; 2 Cor 4:1-4).
10) Those who refuse to humble themselves and be converted (Mt 18:3; Isaiah 6:9-10).
Bible is indeed God's Word. (no other book)
This is the main battle ground of man. If men could not understand the Bible there would be some reason for reject it.
1) Those ignorant of its contents.
2) Those too lazy to read it.
3) Those biased contrary to its true doctrines (Mt 15:7-14; Jn 8:43)
4) Rebels against what it says because they have listened to religious teachers who explain it away.
5) Those uninterested in trying to understand it due to the satanic theory that it is hard to understand.
Contiue>
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Eloi is derived from Allah. You must be sick. Eloi is an aramaic worsd meaning My God. El in hebrew and aramaic means God. Thst's why names like Gabriel, Michael, Israel, Ishmael etc are attached to the name of God in aramaic or hebrew.
Ishmael means God(el) hears. In arabic, if Allah is the name of God, it should be Ishmaallah but Ishmael is translated to Ishmail just to prove ilah is shortened to "il"
Allah is pagan name for idol, no wonder Muhammed's father's name was Abdullah
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Quran 7:157 (Pickthal) Those who follow the messenger, the Prophet who can neither read nor write, whom they will find described in the Torah and the Gospel (which are) with them.
Matthew 11:13 has refuted Quran 7:157 because all the Prophets and the Law prophesied until John the Baptist. So how could Quran 7:157 be true when Muslims claim that Muhammad was mentioned in the Torah which Messiah Yahshua said it was until JOHN ???
-----Yahshua in Hebrew means YHWH saves. YHWH means "Behold my hand, behold the nail". Allah in Sanskrit means "goddess" or "mother". Allah in Hebrew means "OAK". Praying to an OAK tree is idolatry. Wake up!!!---------------------------------------------------
How could Islam be on the right path when ALLAH in Sanskrit means Goddess, in Hebrew means "OAK"??? To pray to an Oak tree is idolatry.
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esus never speak Arabic which existed after 400AD. You fool.
Mat 27:46 And about the ninth hour Yahushua cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My Elohim, my Elohim, why hast thou forsaken me?
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Yahshua was the Creator of the world as the world was made by HIM but the world did not know HIM. How sad?
John 1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.
John 1:11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.
Yahshua was the Creator of mankind and He became man as His own creation but the foolish people did not know HIM!!! Only wise people called Christians know YAHSHUA the SON OF YHWH Elohim. AMEN.
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